Nursing Elites

1. A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transport the client to the seclusion room.
• B. Quietly approach the client with additional staff members.
• C. Take other clients in the area to the client lounge.
• D. Administer medication to chemically restrain the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client is agitated and refusing medication, a non-confrontational approach with additional staff can help de-escalate the situation and address the client's behavior safely. Transporting the client to the seclusion room (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention unless the client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others. Taking other clients to the client lounge (Choice C) does not directly address the agitated client's behavior. Administering medication to chemically restrain the client (Choice D) should only be considered after other de-escalation attempts have been made and if there is a significant safety concern.

2. A client with a recent diagnosis of bipolar disorder is attending a support group for the first time. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further education about the disorder?

• A. “I will make sure to take my medications every day.”
• B. “I will avoid high-stress situations whenever possible.”
• C. “I know I can stop my medications when I am feeling better.”
• D. “I should monitor my mood changes closely.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it shows a misconception about bipolar disorder treatment. Stopping medications when feeling better can lead to a relapse or worsening of symptoms. Choice A is correct because medication adherence is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is also a good strategy as stress management is important in symptom control. Choice D is a proactive approach to self-awareness and can help in recognizing early signs of mood changes.

3. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
• C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

4. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

5. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the nurse finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider.
• B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
• C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
• D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention as it can help alleviate the sensation of excessive thirst, which is a common side effect of lithium. Reporting the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider may be needed if there are signs of lithium toxicity, but the priority here is to address the immediate symptom of excessive thirst. Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is a known side effect of lithium, but it should not be left unaddressed. Simply telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may lead to further distress.

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