a middle aged female client with no previous psychiatric history is seen in the mental health clinic because her family describes her as having parano
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet Mental Health HESI

1. A middle-aged female client with no previous psychiatric history is seen in the mental health clinic because her family describes her as having paranoid thoughts. On assessment, she tells the nurse, “I want to find out why these people are stalking me.” Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse to provide is option A: 'It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.' This response acknowledges the client's feelings and emotions without directly challenging the delusion of being stalked. Option B is incorrect as it directly questions the client's belief, which can lead to increased defensiveness. Option C is incorrect as it denies the client's belief without addressing the underlying fear and can cause the client to feel misunderstood. Option D is incorrect as it directly asks about harm, which may not be the primary concern of the client at this moment.

2. A client with alcohol use disorder is being treated in a rehabilitation facility. Which behavior indicates that the client is making progress in recovery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Participation in group therapy and sharing experiences is a positive sign of progress in recovery for a client with alcohol use disorder. It fosters peer support, allows for personal insight, and encourages social interaction, which are essential aspects of the recovery process. Attending all scheduled therapy sessions regularly (Choice A) is important but may not necessarily indicate the same level of progress as active participation in group therapy. Completing a work-study program (Choice C) is not directly related to the client's recovery from alcohol use disorder. Having a decreased need for psychiatric medication (Choice D) is not necessarily a reliable indicator of progress in recovery from alcohol use disorder, as medication management is a separate aspect of treatment.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a male client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized with antipsychotic medications is to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Medication adherence is crucial in managing schizophrenia, preventing relapse, and maintaining stability. While seeing the psychiatrist regularly (Choice A) is important, adherence to medication is more critical for the client's immediate well-being. Avoiding caffeine and alcohol (Choice C) may be beneficial but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Daily exercise (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the most critical instruction for managing schizophrenia.

4. During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.

5. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.

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