Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
• B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
• C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
• D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.

2. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
• D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.

3. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

• A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
• B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
• C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
• D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.

4. A client with a recent diagnosis of bipolar disorder is attending a support group for the first time. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further education about the disorder?

• A. “I will make sure to take my medications every day.”
• B. “I will avoid high-stress situations whenever possible.”
• C. “I know I can stop my medications when I am feeling better.”
• D. “I should monitor my mood changes closely.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it shows a misconception about bipolar disorder treatment. Stopping medications when feeling better can lead to a relapse or worsening of symptoms. Choice A is correct because medication adherence is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is also a good strategy as stress management is important in symptom control. Choice D is a proactive approach to self-awareness and can help in recognizing early signs of mood changes.

5. What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of 'saying the wrong thing' to a patient?

• A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
• B. The patient is more interested in talking to you than listening to what you have to say and is not likely to be offended.
• C. Considering the patient's history, there is little chance that the comment will do any actual harm.
• D. Most people with a mental illness have by necessity developed a high tolerance for forgiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle guiding nurse-patient communication is that patients value genuine acceptance, respect, and concern. Choice A is the correct answer because showing genuine care and concern for the patient's situation fosters a positive and therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect as effective communication involves active listening and responding appropriately, not assuming the patient is only interested in talking. Choice C is incorrect because a patient's history does not guarantee immunity to harm from inappropriate comments. Choice D is incorrect as it generalizes individuals with mental illness and forgiveness, which is not directly related to communication fears.

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