HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
- B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
- C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
- D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.
2. A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transport the client to the seclusion room.
- B. Quietly approach the client with additional staff members.
- C. Take other clients in the area to the client lounge.
- D. Administer medication to chemically restrain the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where a client is agitated and refusing medication, a non-confrontational approach with additional staff can help de-escalate the situation and address the client's behavior safely. Transporting the client to the seclusion room (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention unless the client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others. Taking other clients to the client lounge (Choice C) does not directly address the agitated client's behavior. Administering medication to chemically restrain the client (Choice D) should only be considered after other de-escalation attempts have been made and if there is a significant safety concern.
3. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?
- A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
- B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
- C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
- D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.
4. What action is most important for the RN to implement within the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated for a homeless client who reports feeling sad and depressed and has only had 4 hours of sleep in the past 2 days?
- A. Allow the client to rest and sleep.
- B. Ensure the client attends groups addressing coping skills for dealing with depression.
- C. Begin planning for the client’s discharge.
- D. Encourage verbalization of feelings.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A: Addressing the client’s immediate need for rest and sleep is crucial for stabilization and recovery. It is essential to prioritize the client's physical well-being and provide the opportunity for adequate rest. B: Group therapy and coping skills are important but secondary to ensuring immediate needs are met. C: Discharge planning is important but should follow stabilization of the client’s immediate needs. D: Encouraging verbalization of feelings is supportive but not as urgent as addressing basic needs like rest.
5. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?
- A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
- B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
- C. Do you think it’s possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
- D. Besides your sister’s comments, what in your life is troubling you?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access