Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

2. A female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room during the admission assessment. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages.
• B. Ask the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy.
• C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus on the client’s verbal messages.
• D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them as one.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse observes a discrepancy between a client's verbal and nonverbal communication, it is essential to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages. Nonverbal cues, such as body language and facial expressions, can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state, feelings, and concerns that may not be expressed verbally. By documenting these nonverbal messages, the nurse can gain a more comprehensive understanding of the client's communication and address any potential underlying issues. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not always provide an accurate understanding of the client's nonverbal cues. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior (Choice C) could lead to missing important cues affecting the client's care. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is important, but initially focusing on documenting and understanding the nonverbal cues can enhance the nurse's assessment and communication with the client.

3. A male adult is admitted because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. After transfer to the mental health unit, the client is told he has liver damage. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

• A. Eat a high-carbohydrate, low-fat, low-protein diet.
• B. Do not take any over-the-counter medication.
• C. Call the crisis hotline if feeling lonely.
• D. Avoid exposure to large crowds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan is to not take any over-the-counter medication. This is crucial because over-the-counter medications can potentially interact with the damaged liver and worsen the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical in the context of liver damage from an acetaminophen overdose. While diet is important for overall health, specifically for liver damage, avoiding over-the-counter medications takes precedence. Calling the crisis hotline for loneliness and avoiding exposure to large crowds are important considerations but are not directly related to the client's liver damage from the acetaminophen overdose.

4. A middle-aged female client with no previous psychiatric history is seen in the mental health clinic because her family describes her as having paranoid thoughts. On assessment, she tells the nurse, “I want to find out why these people are stalking me.” Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.
• B. What makes you think people are stalking you?
• C. I know you are frightened, but no one is stalking you.
• D. Do you think someone is trying to harm you?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse to provide is option A: 'It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.' This response acknowledges the client's feelings and emotions without directly challenging the delusion of being stalked. Option B is incorrect as it directly questions the client's belief, which can lead to increased defensiveness. Option C is incorrect as it denies the client's belief without addressing the underlying fear and can cause the client to feel misunderstood. Option D is incorrect as it directly asks about harm, which may not be the primary concern of the client at this moment.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

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