a client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine lamictal which outcome indicates th a client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine lamictal which outcome indicates th
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Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with DM. The nurse understands that the peak time for rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro (Humalog), is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. Rapid-acting insulins like lispro, such as Humalog, peak quickly within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. This peak time is crucial to monitor for potential hypoglycemia, which is most likely to occur during this period. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a longer peak time for rapid-acting insulin, which is inaccurate. Choices C and D are also incorrect because they indicate even longer peak times, which do not align with the rapid onset and peak action of lispro insulin.

3. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a female client who has just been diagnosed with trichomoniasis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a female client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is to treat sexual partner(s) concurrently. This is crucial to prevent reinfection and the spread of the infection. Choice A, avoiding douching, is generally recommended for vaginal health but is not the most critical instruction in this case. Choice C, avoiding moist washcloths when bathing, is not directly related to the transmission or treatment of trichomoniasis. Choice D, postponing pregnancy until the infection is treated, is important but treating sexual partners concurrently takes precedence to prevent reinfection.

4. A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, “I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child’s bladder.” How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should accept and acknowledge the client’s concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse should not diminish the client’s concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.

5. The nurse is planning for a 5-month-old with gastroesophageal reflux disease whose weight has decreased by 3 ounces since the last clinic visit one month ago. To increase caloric intake and decrease vomiting, what instructions should the nurse provide this mother?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thickening formula with cereal is a recommended intervention for infants with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) to help reduce vomiting and increase caloric intake. This modification can help the infant keep the food down better, reducing reflux symptoms while providing adequate nutrition. Giving small amounts of baby food with each feeding (Choice A) is not recommended for a 5-month-old with GERD as it may exacerbate symptoms. Diluting the child's formula with equal parts of water (Choice C) can lead to inadequate nutrition and is not advisable. Offering 10% dextrose in water between most feedings (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing GERD in infants and does not address the underlying issue of reflux.

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