Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

2. A mental health worker (MHW) is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the MHW warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Attempting to physically restrain the client.
• B. Telling the client to go to the quiet area of the unit.
• C. Using a loud voice to talk to the client.
• D. Remaining at a distance of 4 feet from the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Attempting to physically restrain the client. Physical restraint should only be performed by trained professionals in a safe manner to prevent harm to the client and staff. In this scenario, the mental health worker should not attempt physical restraint, as it can escalate the situation and potentially lead to harm. Choices B, C, and D do not pose an immediate risk and can be part of de-escalation strategies. Choice B suggests guiding the client to a quiet area, choice C involves using a loud voice for better communication, and choice D indicates maintaining a safe distance, which are appropriate interventions to manage escalating aggressive behavior.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the RN to ask the client?

• A. Have you lost interest in the activities you once enjoyed?
• B. Is your ability to think or concentrate reduced?
• C. How many consecutive hours do you sleep at night?
• D. Do you hear sounds or voices that others do not hear?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical question for the RN to ask the client relates to hallucinations. Hallucinations, such as hearing sounds or voices others do not hear, are a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia. This inquiry is vital for assessing the presence of psychotic symptoms and the potential relapse of the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C, although important in assessing overall mental health, do not directly address the core symptomatology of schizophrenia or the potential impact of discontinuing antipsychotic medication abruptly.

4. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.

• A. Auditory
• B. Visual
• C. Written
• D. Tactile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, healthcare professionals should monitor auditory, visual, and non-verbal cues. Auditory communication involves listening to the patient's spoken words, tone of voice, and any other sounds they make. Visual communication includes observing the patient's facial expressions, body language, and gestures. Written communication, such as forms or notes, may also provide valuable information. Tactile communication pertains to touch, which is not typically utilized during an admission interview setting. While all channels of communication are important, in this context, auditory cues are particularly crucial for gathering verbal information during the assessment process, making choice A the correct answer. Visual cues and written information are also significant but may not be as critical as auditory cues during an interview. Tactile communication is generally not a primary channel used during a standard admission assessment and interview, hence it is not a key focus in this scenario.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

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