a client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine lamictal which outcome indicates th
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HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the antipsychotic medication was discontinued several days ago. Which medication should also be discontinued?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an antipsychotic medication is discontinued, medications like Benztropine (Cogentin), which are given to reduce extrapyramidal side effects associated with traditional antipsychotic medications, should also be discontinued. Alprazolam (Xanax) is not directly related to antipsychotic medication use in this context. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative and not typically indicated for bipolar disorder. Lithium (Lithotabs) is a mood stabilizer commonly used in bipolar disorder, and its discontinuation should be carefully managed under the guidance of a healthcare provider to prevent relapse of symptoms.

3. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating caloric and nutritional therapy is the most important intervention for this client due to the significant weight loss and presenting symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, irregular menses, and hair loss. This intervention aims to address the physical effects of malnutrition and support the client's overall health. Behavior modification therapy (Choice A) may be beneficial in the long term to address underlying issues, but addressing the immediate nutritional needs is a priority. Evaluating the client for low self-esteem (Choice C) is important for holistic care but addressing the physical health concerns takes precedence. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is essential for monitoring progress but does not address the urgent need for nutritional support in this acute situation.

4. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

5. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.

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