Nursing Elites

1. After receiving treatment for anorexia, a student asks the school nurse for permission to work in the school cafeteria as part of the school’s work-study program. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Recommend assignment to the receptionist's office.
• B. Suggest that the student work in the athletic department.
• C. Refer the student to a psychiatrist for further discussion.
• D. Determine the parents' opinion of the work assignment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with anorexia are often fixated on food and exercise, which can exacerbate their condition. By recommending assignment to the receptionist's office, the nurse provides an environment that minimizes exposure to food-related triggers. Working in the cafeteria may intensify the student's preoccupation with food, making it an unsuitable choice. Referring the student to a psychiatrist without exploring less triggering work options first may not be necessary. Determining the parents' opinion is important, but in this context, the focus should be on selecting a work environment that supports the student's recovery.

2. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?

• A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
• B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
• C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.

3. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
• C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• D. Encourage the client to exercise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this scenario. This intervention helps address psychomotor retardation and enhances motivation and functioning. By structuring the client's day, it can provide a sense of purpose, routine, and accomplishment. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may be helpful but does not directly address the client's overall functioning. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may provide temporary relief but may not address the core symptoms of major depressive disorder. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, can be beneficial, but in this case, addressing the lack of structure and motivation through a daily plan is more appropriate.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?

• A. National percentile of weight and height.
• B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
• C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
• D. School grades and extracurricular activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.

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