Nursing Elites

1. What action is most important for the RN to implement within the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated for a homeless client who reports feeling sad and depressed and has only had 4 hours of sleep in the past 2 days?

• A. Allow the client to rest and sleep.
• B. Ensure the client attends groups addressing coping skills for dealing with depression.
• C. Begin planning for the client’s discharge.
• D. Encourage verbalization of feelings.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A: Addressing the client’s immediate need for rest and sleep is crucial for stabilization and recovery. It is essential to prioritize the client's physical well-being and provide the opportunity for adequate rest. B: Group therapy and coping skills are important but secondary to ensuring immediate needs are met. C: Discharge planning is important but should follow stabilization of the client’s immediate needs. D: Encouraging verbalization of feelings is supportive but not as urgent as addressing basic needs like rest.

2. A client with schizophrenia is exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations. What should be the RN’s initial intervention?

• A. Instruct the client to ignore the hallucinations.
• B. Encourage the client to describe the hallucinations in detail.
• C. Assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations.
• D. Provide reassurance that the hallucinations are not real.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations is to assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations. This step is crucial as it helps the RN determine the severity of the hallucinations and the best course of action for management and intervention. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice A) may not be effective as the hallucinations may be distressing and overwhelming. Encouraging the client to describe the hallucinations in detail (Choice B) may potentially worsen the symptoms or trigger further distress. Providing reassurance that the hallucinations are not real (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the client may genuinely believe in their reality, and this reassurance may not address the underlying issues causing the hallucinations.

3. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?

• A. If you are experiencing abuse from your partner, I am required to ask you these questions.
• B. It is a requirement by law for me to inquire if you are a victim of domestic violence.
• C. Your healthcare provider must be informed if you are facing any domestic abuse.
• D. All clients undergo screening for domestic abuse due to its prevalence in our society.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse as a routine part of care helps in early identification and support. Choice A is incorrect as it may imply that the questions are only asked if abuse is already suspected. Choice B is incorrect because it emphasizes the legal obligation rather than the importance of routine screening. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the healthcare provider's need rather than the benefit to the client of routine screening.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. A mental health worker (MHW) is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the MHW warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Attempting to physically restrain the client.
• B. Telling the client to go to the quiet area of the unit.
• C. Using a loud voice to talk to the client.
• D. Remaining at a distance of 4 feet from the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Attempting to physically restrain the client. Physical restraint should only be performed by trained professionals in a safe manner to prevent harm to the client and staff. In this scenario, the mental health worker should not attempt physical restraint, as it can escalate the situation and potentially lead to harm. Choices B, C, and D do not pose an immediate risk and can be part of de-escalation strategies. Choice B suggests guiding the client to a quiet area, choice C involves using a loud voice for better communication, and choice D indicates maintaining a safe distance, which are appropriate interventions to manage escalating aggressive behavior.

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