a client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills and back pain what is the nurses first action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills and back pain. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms suggest a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management for the client's condition. Monitoring vital signs, administering diphenhydramine, or preparing to administer an antihistamine can be considered after stopping the transfusion and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider. However, the immediate priority is to halt the transfusion and inform the provider.

2. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.

3. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.

4. A nurse assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fixed, dilated pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or brain injury, indicating a potentially serious neurological condition. Flaccid paralysis, although concerning, may not always indicate immediate life-threatening issues. Diminished spinal reflexes and reduced sensory responses are important neurological assessments but are not as acutely concerning as fixed, dilated pupils in this context.

5. A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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