Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the feeding and provide IV fluids.
• B. Dilute the feeding to half strength and continue at the same rate.
• C. Reduce the feeding rate and monitor for improvement.
• D. Add fiber to the client's diet to resolve diarrhea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving intravenous fluids and pain medication. What is the priority assessment for this client?

• A. Monitor bowel sounds
• B. Measure urine output
• C. Assess for abdominal tenderness
• D. Monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor blood glucose levels. Clients with acute pancreatitis are prone to hyperglycemia due to impaired insulin production. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While assessing bowel sounds, urine output, and abdominal tenderness are important in the overall care of a client with acute pancreatitis, monitoring blood glucose levels takes priority to address the immediate risk of hyperglycemia.

3. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

4. During the admission assessment of a 3-year-old with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus, which assessment finding is evidence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Low blood pressure
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Normal pupil reaction
• D. Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. This finding suggests that the optic nerve is being compressed due to increased ICP, causing a delay in pupillary reactions. Such a delay is a critical sign of worsening ICP and necessitates immediate intervention. Low blood pressure and increased respiratory rate can occur in various conditions but are less specific to increased ICP than sluggish and unequal pupillary responses, which directly reflect neurological compromise.

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), who usually works on a surgical unit, is assigned to float to a pediatric unit. Which question by the charge nurse would be most appropriate when making delegation decisions?

• A. How long have you been a UAP and what units have you worked on?
• B. What type of care do you provide on the surgical unit, and what are the ages of the clients?
• C. What is your comfort level in caring for children and at what ages?
• D. Have you reviewed the list of expected skills you might need on this unit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate question by the charge nurse would be to ask the UAP if they have reviewed the list of expected skills needed on the pediatric unit. This ensures that the UAP is aware of the specific skills required for safe and appropriate care in that particular unit. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need for the UAP to review the expected skills, which is crucial for delegation decisions during floating assignments.

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