a pregnant client complains of heartburn what instruction should the nurse provide
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A pregnant client complains of heartburn. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a pregnant client experiencing heartburn is to eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach. This helps prevent the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Eating spicy food can exacerbate heartburn, carbonated beverages may trigger heartburn due to gas, and avoiding fluids after meals does not directly address the issue of heartburn.

2. A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.

4. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

5. Which intervention should be included in the long-term plan of care for a client with COPD?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.' Diaphragmatic breathing is an essential intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve exhalation and lung function, ultimately reducing symptoms over the long term. Option A is incorrect because high-flow oxygen during sleep is more relevant for clients with conditions like sleep apnea rather than COPD. Option B, 'Reduce risk factors for infection,' is important but not as specific to the long-term management of COPD as diaphragmatic breathing. Option C, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions,' is not a recommended intervention for clients with COPD, as adequate hydration is crucial for maintaining respiratory health.

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