Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate
• B. Apply a warm compress to the left leg
• C. Elevate the client's left leg
• D. Administer a prescribed anticoagulant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is a priority intervention for a client with suspected DVT. This action helps prevent the thrombus from dislodging and causing further complications. Encouraging ambulation may dislodge the clot, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Applying a warm compress can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging the clot. Administering anticoagulants is essential but should not be the first action as elevation helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with DVT.

2. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
• B. Encourage the client to rest.
• C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
• D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.

5. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions regarding the administration of alendronate (Fosamax)?

• A. I will take the medication at bedtime to avoid stomach upset.
• B. I will take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning.
• C. I will lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. I will take the medication with food to reduce stomach irritation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food, to enhance absorption.

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