HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who jogs daily is being taught by a nurse about the preferred sites for insulin absorption. What is the most appropriate site for this client?
- A. Arms
- B. Legs
- C. Abdomen
- D. Iliac crest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for insulin absorption in a client who jogs. When a client is involved in physical activity like jogging, the abdomen is preferred as it provides more consistent absorption compared to the arms or legs, which can have altered absorption rates due to increased blood flow during exercise. The iliac crest is not a common site for insulin injections and may not provide optimal absorption rates compared to the abdomen.
2. What should the nurse do before an echocardiogram for a client who has had a myocardial infarction?
- A. Ensuring no food or drink for 4 hours before the procedure
- B. Obtaining informed consent from the client
- C. Assessing for any history of iodine or shellfish allergies
- D. Informing the client about the painless nature and duration of the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that the echocardiogram is a painless procedure that usually takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete. Echocardiography is a noninvasive, risk-free, and pain-free test that uses ultrasound to evaluate the heart's structure and motion. There is no need for special preparation before the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because imposing nothing-by-mouth status, obtaining informed consent, and assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish are not necessary steps before an echocardiogram.
3. An adult female client has undergone a routine health screening in the clinic. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse who receives the report of the client’s laboratory work that the client’s hematocrit is normal?
- A. 10%
- B. 22%
- C. 30%
- D. 43%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The normal hematocrit for an adult female client ranges from 35% to 47%. A hematocrit value of 43% falls within this normal range, indicating normal levels of red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are low hematocrit values and are considered below the normal range for adult females, signifying potential anemia or other health issues.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.
- B. Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.
- C. Give the medication and obtain a serum peak drug level 45 minutes after the dose.
- D. Hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.
5. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?
- A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
- B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
- C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
- D. Does the client take digitalis?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.
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