HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who jogs daily is being taught by a nurse about the preferred sites for insulin absorption. What is the most appropriate site for this client?
- A. Arms
- B. Legs
- C. Abdomen
- D. Iliac crest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for insulin absorption in a client who jogs. When a client is involved in physical activity like jogging, the abdomen is preferred as it provides more consistent absorption compared to the arms or legs, which can have altered absorption rates due to increased blood flow during exercise. The iliac crest is not a common site for insulin injections and may not provide optimal absorption rates compared to the abdomen.
2. A client presents with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Palpate the kidneys and bladder.
- B. Assess the medical history and current medical problems.
- C. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual.
- D. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a fungal UTI, the nurse should prioritize gathering information related to the medical history and current medical problems. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or have conditions like diabetes mellitus are more susceptible to fungal UTIs. Assessing the medical history helps identify risk factors and potential causes of the infection. While physical examinations like palpating the kidneys and bladder and performing a bladder scan may be necessary, they should follow the initial assessment of medical history. Inquiring about recent travel to foreign countries is less relevant in the context of a fungal UTI, as the focus should be on immediate medical factors predisposing the client to the infection.
3. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?
- A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
- B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
- C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
- D. Does the client take digitalis?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.
4. A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Contact the patient’s provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
- B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
- C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
- D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient’s potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.
5. A patient presents with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the priority?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient presenting with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, the priority diagnostic test is an Electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG can quickly identify changes indicative of ischemia or infarction, guiding prompt management. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) may provide some information but is not the primary test for evaluating chest pain related to myocardial infarction. A Chest X-ray can be useful in assessing lung pathologies or certain cardiac conditions; however, it does not provide immediate information on myocardial infarction, making it a secondary option in this scenario. Serum electrolytes may become important in later stages but do not offer immediate insights into myocardial infarction. Therefore, they are a lower priority compared to obtaining an ECG for timely diagnosis and intervention.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access