HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed a low-protein diet. The nurse should explain to the client that the purpose of this diet is to:
- A. Prevent fluid overload.
- B. Reduce the workload on the kidneys.
- C. Prevent dehydration.
- D. Maintain electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Reduce the workload on the kidneys.' A low-protein diet is prescribed for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea and other nitrogenous wastes, which can accumulate in the body when the kidneys are not functioning properly. This reduction in protein intake helps to lessen the burden on the kidneys, as they may have difficulty in filtering and excreting waste products. Choice A is incorrect because fluid overload is more related to restrictions in fluid intake rather than protein intake. Choice C is incorrect as a low-protein diet does not directly prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because while electrolyte balance is essential in renal failure, the primary purpose of a low-protein diet is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by limiting the production of waste products.
2. A client has just had a central line catheter placed that is specific for hemodialysis. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Use the catheter for the next laboratory blood draw.
- B. Monitor the central venous pressure through this line.
- C. Access the line for the next intravenous medication.
- D. Place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse after a central line catheter placement for hemodialysis is to place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis treatment. This helps prevent clot formation in the line and maintain patency for future use. Using the catheter for blood draws is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection. Monitoring central venous pressure is not indicated with this type of catheter. Accessing the line for medications is also not recommended to prevent complications and ensure the line is solely used for hemodialysis purposes.
3. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Assure the client that their symptoms will be kept confidential.
- B. Acknowledge the client's discomfort and avoid discussing elimination topics.
- C. Encourage the use of familiar language and assure the client they can take their time.
- D. Offer the client a nurse of the same gender to provide care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.
4. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
- C. Sedimentation rate.
- D. Urine specific gravity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.
5. A nurse teaches clients about the difference between urge incontinence and stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urge incontinence involves a post-void residual volume less than 50 mL.
- B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles.
- C. Stress incontinence usually occurs in people with dementia.
- D. Urge incontinence can be managed by increasing fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the education about urge incontinence and stress incontinence is choice B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral sphincter, leading to the inability to tighten the urethra sufficiently to overcome increased detrusor pressure. This condition is common after childbirth when pelvic muscles are stretched and weakened. Urge incontinence, on the other hand, is characterized by the inability to suppress the contraction signal from the detrusor muscle. It is often associated with abnormal detrusor contractions, which can be due to neurological abnormalities rather than post-void residual volume. Choice A is incorrect because urge incontinence is not defined by post-void residual volume. Choice C is incorrect as stress incontinence is not usually linked to dementia. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not a management strategy for urge incontinence.
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