Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

2. The client is preparing a morning dose of insulin, which includes 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse is verifying the client's preparation accuracy. What should the syringe read for the correct dose?

• A. 22 units.
• B. 10 units.
• C. 32 units.
• D. 42 units.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 32 units. To determine the correct dose, the nurse needs to add the 10 units of regular insulin to the 22 units of NPH, resulting in a total of 32 units. Therefore, the syringe should read 32 units. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate total dose required for the morning insulin administration.

3. What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?

• A. Atherosclerosis.
• B. Hyperlipidemia.
• C. Diabetes.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atherosclerosis. It is the primary cause of coronary artery disease, as it involves the buildup of plaque in the arteries, restricting blood flow to the heart. Hyperlipidemia (choice B) contributes to atherosclerosis by increasing cholesterol levels in the blood but is not the direct cause of coronary artery disease. Diabetes (choice C) can accelerate atherosclerosis due to high blood sugar levels, but it is not the most common cause. Smoking (choice D) is a significant risk factor for developing coronary artery disease but is not the primary cause.

4. The nurse is planning care for an older adult client who experienced a cerebrovascular accident several weeks ago. The client has expressive aphasia and often becomes frustrated with the nursing staff. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Teach the client the use of basic sign language
• B. Speak slowly to the client
• C. Encourage the client's use of picture charts
• D. Ask the client simple questions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client's use of picture charts is the most appropriate intervention for a client with expressive aphasia. Picture charts provide visual cues that can aid in communication and reduce frustration for the client. This intervention can help the client express their needs and thoughts effectively. Teaching sign language (Choice A) may be challenging and not as practical in this situation as it may not address the specific communication barriers caused by expressive aphasia. Speaking slowly (Choice B) may not fully address the communication difficulties associated with expressive aphasia. Asking simple questions (Choice D) may not be effective as the client may have difficulty understanding and responding due to the nature of expressive aphasia.

5. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

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