HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
- B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
- C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
- D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?
- A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
- B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
- C. Peripheral neuropathy.
- D. Uremic fetor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.
3. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?
- A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
- B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
- C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
- D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.
4. Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
- C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
- D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.
5. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?
- A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
- B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
- C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
- D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.
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