Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?

• A. Left ventricular atrophy.
• B. Irregular heartbeats.
• C. Peripheral vascular occlusion.
• D. Pacemaker function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.

2. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?

• A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
• D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.

3. A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states, 'I have not urinated very much in the last few days.' The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is the priority?

• A. Give the client a bottle of water immediately.
• B. Start an intravenous line for fluids.
• C. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily.
• D. Perform an electrocardiogram.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to give the client a bottle of water immediately. The athlete's symptoms of decreased urination, along with a heart rate of 110 beats/min and low blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg, indicate mild dehydration. Rehydration should begin promptly to address the dehydration. Teaching the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily is a good long-term strategy but not the immediate priority. Starting an intravenous line for fluids may be necessary if oral hydration is insufficient or if the degree of dehydration is severe. Performing an electrocardiogram is not indicated at this time as the priority is addressing the dehydration.

4. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after bronchoscopy. To which intervention should the nurse give priority?

• A. Assessing the client for the return of the gag reflex
• B. Administering pain medication
• C. Encouraging copious fluid intake
• D. Ambulating the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After bronchoscopy, the priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client for the return of the gag reflex. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent aspiration. Keeping the client on nothing-by-mouth status until the gag reflex returns is essential. Administering pain medication, encouraging fluid intake, and ambulating the client are important interventions but assessing the gag reflex takes precedence due to the risk of aspiration post-bronchoscopy.

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