a client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis the nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.

3. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

4. A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness is often a sign of respiratory distress or secretion build-up, indicating the need for suctioning. While drowsiness (choice A) can be a sign of hypoxia, it is not as immediate an indication for suctioning as restlessness. Complaint of nausea (choice B) and a pulse rate of 92 (choice C) are not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client on a volume-cycled ventilator.

5. A nurse is providing care to a 63-year-old client with pneumonia. Which intervention promotes the client's comfort?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping conversations short is the most appropriate intervention to promote comfort for a client with pneumonia. Pneumonia can be physically exhausting, and limiting the length of conversations helps conserve the client's energy. Encouraging visits from family and friends (Choice B) may be emotionally supportive but might not directly promote comfort in the context of conserving energy during recovery. Increasing oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for hydration but may not directly address the client's comfort. Monitoring vital signs frequently (Choice D) is essential for assessing the client's condition but does not directly promote comfort.

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