HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated PTT
- D. Clotting time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.
2. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- C. White blood cells
- D. Platelets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.
3. A client is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of a severe infection. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?
- A. Monitor the client's temperature
- B. Assess the client's pain level
- C. Check the intravenous (IV) site for signs of phlebitis
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory status
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is receiving intravenous antibiotics, checking the IV site for signs of phlebitis is a priority assessment for the nurse. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein, which can lead to serious complications such as infection and thrombosis. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent these complications and ensures the safe delivery of antibiotics. While monitoring the client's temperature, pain level, and respiratory status are important assessments, they are not the priority in this scenario where IV antibiotic administration requires close monitoring for complications like phlebitis.
4. The nurse is discussing with a group of students the disease Kawasaki. What statement made by a student about Kawasaki disease is incorrect?
- A. It is also called mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome because it affects the mucous membranes (inside the mouth, throat, and nose), skin, and lymph nodes.
- B. In the second phase of the disease, findings include peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain.
- C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys, children younger than age 5, and children of Hispanic descent.
- D. Initially findings are a sudden high fever, usually above 104 degrees Fahrenheit, which lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys and children younger than age 5, but there is no specific predisposition to children of Hispanic descent. Choice A is accurate, as Kawasaki disease does affect mucous membranes, skin, and lymph nodes. Choice B is correct, as peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain are findings in the second phase of the disease. Choice D is accurate since initially, there is a sudden high fever that lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
5. A client with diabetes is being educated about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of their calories. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Most of my calories each day should be from fats.
- B. I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else.
- C. Simple sugars are needed more than other calorie sources.
- D. Protein should be my main source of calories.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In diabetes management, complex carbohydrates should constitute the largest portion of the diet as they help in maintaining steady energy levels and managing blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because a high-fat diet can lead to complications in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as protein, while important, should not be the main source of calories for a diabetic individual.
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