Nursing Elites

1. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

2. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

• A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
• B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
• C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
• D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

3. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
• C. Diffuse macular rash
• D. Muscle tenderness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.

4. When assessing constipation in elders, which action should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Obtain a complete blood count
• B. Obtain a health and dietary history
• C. Refer to a provider for a physical examination
• D. Measure height and weight

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a health and dietary history when assessing constipation in elders. This action is crucial as it helps the nurse identify potential causes and contributing factors to constipation in elderly clients. Obtaining a complete blood count (choice A) may be necessary at some point, but it is not the priority in this situation. Referring to a provider for a physical examination (choice C) and measuring height and weight (choice D) are important but are not the priority actions when assessing constipation.

5. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

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