Nursing Elites

1. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

2. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

• A. Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities
• B. Exercise to reduce weight
• C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
• D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing activities help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. This type of exercise includes activities like walking, dancing, and weightlifting, which help improve bone density. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health, not weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture can lead to muscle weakness and a decline in bone health. Choice D is also incorrect because while strengthening muscles is beneficial, the emphasis for osteoporosis management should be on weight-bearing exercises specifically.

3. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.

4. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the protein level in urine
• B. Have the client turn to the left side
• C. Take the temperature
• D. Monitor the urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.

5. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?

• A. Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics
• B. Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares
• C. Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics
• D. Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.

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