Nursing Elites

1. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

2. A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?

• A. Tea
• B. Sodium
• C. Water
• D. Protein

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.

3. When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula

• A. Every four to six hours
• B. Continuously
• C. In a bolus
• D. Every hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enteral feeding through a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula continuously. Continuous feeding is essential for optimal nutrient absorption and to prevent complications. Administering the formula every four to six hours, in a bolus, or every hour may lead to inadequate nutrition, improper absorption, and an increased risk of complications such as aspiration or dumping syndrome, making these choices incorrect.

4. Which client calling the community health clinic would the nurse ask to come in that day to be seen by the health care provider?

• A. I started my period, and now my urine has turned bright red.
• B. I am a diabetic, and today I have been going to the bathroom every hour.
• C. I was started on medicine yesterday for a urinary infection. Now my lower belly hurts when I go to the bathroom.
• D. I went to the bathroom, and my urine looked very red, and it didn't hurt when I went.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because bright red urine without pain suggests possible hematuria, which is a concerning symptom that requires immediate medical evaluation. Option A mentions bright red urine but also relates it to starting a period, which is less likely to be an urgent issue. Option B describes increased urination, which may indicate hyperglycemia but doesn't require immediate evaluation. Option C presents symptoms more related to a urinary tract infection that may not require urgent attention.

5. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

• A. Bruising at the operative site
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. No bowel movement for 3 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

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