Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

• A. Heart rate
• B. Pedal pulses
• C. Lung sounds
• D. Pupil responses

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a colostomy about appropriate food choices. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Eggs
• B. Grapes
• C. Pasta
• D. Dried fruits

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are a good protein source and are less likely to cause blockage or odor issues in clients with colostomies. Grapes, pasta, and dried fruits can be problematic for individuals with colostomies as they may cause digestive issues, blockages, or increased gas production. Grapes have skins that are hard to digest, pasta can cause constipation or blockage, and dried fruits are high in fiber which can lead to blockages.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with a CVA. Which of the following measures planned by the nurse would be most effective in preventing skin breakdown?

• A. Place the client in the wheelchair for four hours each day
• B. Pad the bony prominences
• C. Reposition every two hours
• D. Massage reddened bony prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning every two hours is the most effective measure in preventing skin breakdown for a client with a CVA. This practice helps to relieve pressure on the skin, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Placing the client in a wheelchair for extended periods (Choice A) can increase pressure on specific areas, leading to skin breakdown. Padding bony prominences (Choice B) can provide some protection but may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Massaging reddened bony prominences (Choice D) can potentially worsen the condition by causing further damage to already compromised skin.

4. When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.

5. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?

• A. Change in libido, breast enlargement
• B. Sore throat, fever
• C. Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea
• D. Dsypnea, nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.

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