Nursing Elites

1. Which of these nursing diagnoses of 4 elderly clients would place 1 client at the greatest risk for falls?

• A. Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
• B. Alteration in mobility related to fatigue
• C. Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions
• D. Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia. Nocturia increases the risk of falls in elderly clients due to frequent nighttime trips to the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect because while decreased vision can contribute to falls, nocturia poses a more direct risk. Choice B is incorrect as fatigue may affect mobility but is not as directly linked to falls as nocturia. Choice C is incorrect as impaired gas exchange is not typically associated with an increased risk of falls.

2. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Institute seizure precautions
• B. Monitor neurologic status every hour
• C. Place in respiratory/secretion precautions
• D. Cefotaxime IV 50 mg/kg/day divided q6h

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in respiratory/secretion precautions first. Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, and respiratory precautions are essential to prevent the spread of the infection. Seizure precautions may be necessary but are not the priority upon admission. Monitoring neurologic status is important but not the initial action needed. While antibiotic therapy like Cefotaxime is crucial, implementing isolation precautions to prevent transmission takes precedence in this situation.

3. When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.

4. An 85-year-old client complains of generalized muscle aches and pains. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Assess the severity and location of the pain
• B. Obtain an order for an analgesic
• C. Reassure the client that this is not unusual for his age
• D. Encourage the client to increase activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the severity and location of the pain. This is crucial because understanding the nature of the pain will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate pain management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering analgesics should come after assessing the pain to ensure the right medication is given. Choice C is incorrect because dismissing the pain as a normal part of aging without proper assessment could overlook underlying issues. Choice D is incorrect as increasing activity without understanding the cause of pain may exacerbate the client's condition.

5. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. give the medication in the ventrogluteal site
• C. call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering the medication in 2 separate injections is the correct action. When the total volume of an injection is relatively large for a specific site, dividing it into smaller volumes and administering them separately is a safer practice to prevent discomfort, tissue damage, or absorption issues. Giving the medication in the ventrogluteal site can be appropriate for IM injections but does not address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection. Calling to get a smaller volume ordered may delay treatment and is not necessary when a safe administration method is available. Checking with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication does not directly address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection, and changing the formulation may not be necessary if the correct administration technique can be applied.

Similar Questions