HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?
- A. Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics
- B. Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares
- C. Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics
- D. Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.
2. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
- A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
- B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
- C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
- D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
3. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?
- A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
- B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
- C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
- D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.
4. A client underwent coronary artery bypass grafting and is learning about following a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following food choices indicates the client's understanding of these dietary instructions?
- A. Liver
- B. Milk
- C. Beans
- D. Eggs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Beans. Beans are an excellent choice for individuals following a low-cholesterol diet post-coronary artery bypass grafting due to their low cholesterol content. Beans are high in fiber and protein, making them a heart-healthy option. Choice A, Liver, is high in cholesterol and should be avoided in a low-cholesterol diet. Choice B, Milk, contains cholesterol and saturated fats, which are not ideal for this diet. Choice D, Eggs, are also high in cholesterol and should be limited in a low-cholesterol diet.
5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?
- A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
- B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
- C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
- D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access