Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client admitted after a fall begins to seize and loses consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next?

• A. Stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction
• B. Collect pillows and pad the side rails of the bed
• C. Place an oral airway in the mouth and suction
• D. Announce a cardiac arrest and assist with intubation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction. This is crucial as it ensures immediate intervention if there is any airway compromise. Choice B is incorrect as padding the side rails of the bed is not the priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because inserting an oral airway and suctioning should only be done if there is evidence of airway obstruction, and it is not the initial step. Choice D is incorrect as announcing a cardiac arrest and assisting with intubation is not the immediate action needed when a client is seizing and losing consciousness.

2. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

3. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. The tube will drain fluid from your chest.
• B. The tube will remove excess air from your chest.
• C. The tube controls the amount of air that enters your chest.
• D. The tube will seal the hole in your lung.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

4. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

• A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
• B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
• D. Monitoring the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

5. Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?

• A. Eat a light diet for the rest of the day
• B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and test are tiring.
• C. During waking hours, drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every hour for the next 2 days
• D. Measure urine output for the next day and immediately notify the healthcare provider if it decreases.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.

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