HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a postoperative client?
- A. Maintain adequate hydration
- B. Assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
- C. Ambulate the client within 12 hours
- D. Splint the incision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. This intervention helps to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis in postoperative clients. Maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis. Ambulating the client within 12 hours is beneficial for preventing complications after surgery, but it may not be as directly effective in preventing atelectasis as turning, deep breathing, and coughing. Splinting the incision is important for postoperative care, but it does not specifically address the prevention of atelectasis.
2. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to
- A. Wrap the leg with elastic bandages
- B. Apply pressure at the bleeding site
- C. Reinforce the dressing and elevate the leg
- D. Remove the dressings and re-dress the incision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss. Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.
3. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
- A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
- B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
- D. Monitoring the client's intake and output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
4. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication:
- A. Can predispose to dysrhythmias
- B. May lead to oliguria
- C. May cause irritability and anxiety
- D. Sometimes alters consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias when taking digoxin, making potassium intake crucial. Digoxin toxicity is more likely in patients with low potassium levels, leading to an increased risk of dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia in combination with digoxin is primarily associated with dysrhythmias rather than oliguria, irritability, anxiety, or alteration of consciousness.
5. The nurse is discussing with a group of students the disease Kawasaki. What statement made by a student about Kawasaki disease is incorrect?
- A. It is also called mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome because it affects the mucous membranes (inside the mouth, throat, and nose), skin, and lymph nodes.
- B. In the second phase of the disease, findings include peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain.
- C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys, children younger than age 5, and children of Hispanic descent.
- D. Initially findings are a sudden high fever, usually above 104 degrees Fahrenheit, which lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys and children younger than age 5, but there is no specific predisposition to children of Hispanic descent. Choice A is accurate, as Kawasaki disease does affect mucous membranes, skin, and lymph nodes. Choice B is correct, as peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain are findings in the second phase of the disease. Choice D is accurate since initially, there is a sudden high fever that lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
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