Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Jugular vein distention.
• B. Crackles in the lungs.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Hepatomegaly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.

2. The healthcare provider plans to foster a therapeutic relationship with the patient utilizing therapeutic techniques of communication. It is most important that the provider:

• A. Work on establishing rapport with the patient.
• B. Use humor to lighten emotionally charged topics of discussion.
• C. Empathize with the patient when the patient shares sad feelings.
• D. Demonstrate respect when discussing emotionally charged topics.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In fostering a therapeutic relationship, demonstrating respect is essential as it helps the patient feel valued and understood. Respectful communication contributes to building trust and a safe environment for open and honest discussions.

3. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]

• A. 4 tablets
• B. 3 tablets
• C. 2 tablets
• D. 1 tablet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.

4. When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.

5. Which client care task requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as mandated by the Standard Precautions protocol?

• A. Removing the empty food tray from a client with a urinary catheter.
• B. Washing and combing the hair of a client with a fractured leg in traction.
• C. Administering oral medications to a cooperative client with a wound infection.
• D. Emptying the urinary catheter drainage bag for a client with Alzheimer's disease.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because emptying a urinary catheter drainage bag exposes the nurse to body fluids, necessitating the use of barrier gloves as per Standard Precautions to prevent potential infection transmission.

Similar Questions