a client is admitted with a diagnosis of right sided heart failure what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.

2. The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.

3. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.

4. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring the client’s respiratory rate and effort is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and prevent complications such as respiratory depression. This intervention helps the nurse promptly detect any deterioration in the client's respiratory status and take necessary actions to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging continuous oxygen use (Choice A) may lead to oxygen toxicity. Setting the oxygen flow rate at a specific level (Choice C) without individual assessment can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Teaching the client to avoid wearing wool blankets (Choice D) is unrelated to the safe use of oxygen therapy.

5. After surgery, a client who had a colostomy says 'I know the doctor did not really do a colostomy'. The nurse understands that the client is in an early stage of adjustment to the diagnosis or surgery. What nursing action is indicated at this time?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings with empathy is essential in the early stage of adjustment to a colostomy surgery. By saying 'It must be difficult to have this kind of surgery,' the nurse validates the client's emotions and opens up a channel for further communication. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with the client's denial is not therapeutic and may hinder acceptance. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the client's emotional state and autonomy. Choice D involves the surgeon and is not the nurse's role in addressing the client's emotional needs.

Similar Questions

The patient had a CVA and developed right-sided hemiplegia. Which action is least appropriate for the nurse to take?
The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?
A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
During a home visit, an elderly female client who had a brain attack three months ago and can now ambulate with a quad cane is assessed by the nurse. Which assessment finding has the greatest implications for this client's care?
When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses