a client is admitted with a diagnosis of right sided heart failure what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.

2. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the blood pressure with the correct size cuff (B) to obtain an accurate reading. Postponing reassessment (A) could lead to inaccurate results. While (C and D) are important actions for education and quality improvement, they are not as critical as obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading in this situation.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.

4. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the client to talk about specific concerns. This approach provides an opportunity for the client to express her worries openly, allowing the nurse to gather more detailed information for a comprehensive assessment and to address the client's concerns effectively.

5. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.

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