Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which assessment finding is most commonly associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Headache
• B. Dizziness
• C. Fatigue
• D. Edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache (A) is the most commonly associated symptom with primary hypertension due to increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to headaches. While dizziness (B), fatigue (C), and edema (D) may also occur in hypertension, headache is the most frequently reported symptom among individuals with primary hypertension.

2. The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?

• A. Low serum albumin level
• B. Low serum transferrin level
• C. High hemoglobin level
• D. High cholesterol level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low serum albumin level is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Serum albumin levels reflect long-term protein status, and a significantly lowered level usually indicates ongoing protein deficiency. Other laboratory values, such as serum transferrin, hemoglobin, or cholesterol levels, may be affected by various factors and conditions, but serum albumin is a more specific marker for chronic protein malnutrition.

3. A client is receiving intravenous (IV) fluids postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider?

• A. The client reports pain at the IV site
• B. The client’s blood pressure is elevated
• C. The client has swelling at the IV site
• D. The client’s heart rate is irregular

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires stopping the IV infusion and notifying the healthcare provider. Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing swelling and potential damage. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety.

4. During a clinic visit, the mother of a 7-year-old reports to the nurse that her child is often awake until midnight playing and is then very difficult to awaken in the morning for school. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain in response to the mother's report?

• A. The occurrence of any episodes of sleep apnea
• B. The child's blood pressure, pulse, and respirations
• C. Length of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep that the child is experiencing
• D. Description of the family's home environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In response to the mother's report, the nurse should assess the family's home environment first to identify any factors that may hinder the establishment of bedtime routines conducive to sleep. Factors such as noise, light, distractions, or other environmental aspects could be contributing to the child's difficulty falling asleep at a reasonable hour and waking up in the morning.

5. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught pursed-lip breathing by the nurse. What is the purpose of this technique?

• A. To promote oxygenation by removing secretions.
• B. To reduce the amount of air trapped in the lungs.
• C. To increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled.
• D. To slow the respiratory rate and improve air exchange.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is used to increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled (C) in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By doing so, it helps prevent air trapping and enhances gas exchange, ultimately improving respiratory efficiency. While removing secretions (A) and reducing air trapping (B) can be associated benefits to some extent, the primary goal of pursed-lip breathing is to optimize carbon dioxide elimination and enhance breathing mechanics. Slowing the respiratory rate (D) is not the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing.

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