HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
- B. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams per day (B) is a crucial dietary instruction for clients with heart failure. It helps manage fluid retention and reduces the workload on the heart. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, worsening heart failure symptoms. Increasing fluid intake (A) can further exacerbate fluid overload in heart failure patients. Avoiding foods high in potassium (C) is not necessary unless the client has hyperkalemia; in heart failure, potassium restriction is not a primary dietary concern. Increasing protein intake (D) is not the priority for heart failure management; focusing on sodium restriction is more beneficial.
2. To avoid nerve injury, what location should the nurse select to administer a 3 mL IM injection?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Outer upper quadrant of the buttock
- C. Two inches below the acromion process
- D. Vastus lateralis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred location for administering large volume IM injections to avoid nerve injury. This site is situated away from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications associated with injecting into other areas. The ventrogluteal site allows for deep muscle penetration and is recommended for injections over 2 mL in volume to ensure proper dispersion and absorption of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the outer upper quadrant of the buttock is not the recommended site for large volume injections, two inches below the acromion process is a location for a deltoid injection, and the vastus lateralis is typically used for smaller volume injections.
3. The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, 'My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. She is almost sure to be less able to adapt than before.
- B. It's highly likely that she will recover and return to her pre-illness state.
- C. If you can interest her in something besides religion, it will help her stay well.
- D. Cultural strains contribute to each woman's tendencies for recurrences of depression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years involves acceptance and adaptation, and the daughter should be reassured that recovery is likely.
4. A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
- B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
- C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
- D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to educate the client on the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation. Although it's crucial to respect the client's beliefs, providing education ensures the client receives accurate information to make informed decisions about her hygiene practices. By offering teaching first, the nurse can address any misconceptions or concerns the client may have while promoting optimal hygiene practices for overall well-being. Choice A should not be the first action as it does not address the client's potential misinformation about hygiene. Choice B is not ideal as it only offers a temporary solution without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C is not the priority as the immediate concern is the client's personal hygiene practices.
5. The healthcare provider who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the provider take?
- A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
- B. Obtain parental consent before giving the medication.
- C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
- D. Complete an incident report and notify the adolescent.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is for the provider not to administer the medication and to document the reason. In the case of a minor, parental consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. It is important to follow legal and ethical guidelines to ensure the adolescent's well-being and rights are protected. Choice A is incorrect because simply reviewing the chart does not address the lack of parental consent. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining parental consent should be done before medication administration. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the adolescent is not the appropriate action in this situation, as parental consent is legally required for a minor's medical treatment.
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