Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to isolation with active tuberculosis. What infection control measures should the nurse implement?

• A. Initiate protective environment precautions.
• B. Use droplet precautions only.
• C. Ensure a positive pressure environment in the room.
• D. Implement negative pressure and contact precautions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with active tuberculosis, it is crucial to implement negative pressure rooms and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice A, initiating protective environment precautions, is incorrect as this is not the recommended approach for tuberculosis. Choice B, using droplet precautions only, is insufficient as tuberculosis requires additional precautions. Choice C, ensuring a positive pressure environment in the room, is incorrect because negative pressure rooms are necessary to contain airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Therefore, the most appropriate measures include implementing negative pressure rooms and contact precautions.

2. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

4. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

5. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer calcium gluconate.
• D. Restrict the client's potassium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

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