Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. After administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Heart rate
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Apnea episodes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Surfactant therapy is used to improve lung function and gas exchange in premature infants with respiratory distress. Monitoring arterial blood gases is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and ensure adequate oxygenation. While monitoring heart rate is important in neonatal care, assessing arterial blood gases will provide direct information regarding the infant's oxygenation status post-surfactant administration. Bowel sounds are not directly related to the respiratory distress symptoms described, and monitoring apnea episodes, although important in preterm infants, is not the most crucial assessment immediately following surfactant administration.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's oxygenation is improving?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 94%
• B. Heart rate increases from 80 to 90 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 20 breaths per minute
• D. Client reports increased energy levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 94% indicates adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most objective way to assess the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the client's oxygenation status. An increase in heart rate or respiratory rate may indicate increased work of breathing or stress on the body. The client reporting increased energy levels is subjective and may not directly correlate with improved oxygenation.

3. The nurse is caring for a seated client experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which actions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place a padded tongue depressor in the client's mouth
• B. Restrain the client and attempt to stop the seizure
• C. Begin CPR immediately
• D. Loosen restrictive clothing and ease the client to the floor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should loosen restrictive clothing to prevent injury and ease the client to the floor to ensure safety. Placing any object, such as a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth is contraindicated as it may cause harm. Restraint should not be used as it can lead to injury. Beginning CPR is not indicated during a seizure unless the client experiences cardiac arrest, which is a rare complication of seizures.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

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