Nursing Elites

1. A client in a long term care facility complains of pain. The nurse collects data about the client's pain. The first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to

• A. have the client identify coping methods
• B. get the description of the location and intensity of the pain
• C. accept the client's report of pain
• D. determine the client's status of pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'get the description of the location and intensity of the pain.' When a client complains of pain, the initial step in pain assessment is to gather information about the location and intensity of the pain. This helps the nurse understand the nature of the pain and lays the groundwork for further assessment and management. Choice A is incorrect because identifying coping methods comes later in the assessment process. Choice C is incorrect as accepting the client's report of pain is important, but not the first step. Choice D is incorrect as determining the client's pain status also comes after gathering information about the pain.

2. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is:

• A. difference in the intake and output
• B. changes in the mucous membranes
• C. skin turgor
• D. weekly weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with altered renal function, monitoring fluid balance is crucial. Weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the visits as it reflects cumulative changes in the body's fluid status. Changes in intake and output (Choice A) can provide valuable information, but weekly weight is a more direct measure of overall fluid retention or loss. Changes in mucous membranes (Choice B) and skin turgor (Choice C) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less reliable indicators in this context.

3. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

4. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
• D. Client is unable to speak

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's disease about foods to include in her diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Vanilla milkshake
• B. Buttered popcorn
• C. Broccoli
• D. Grilled chicken breast

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grilled chicken breast is a high-protein, low-fiber food that is well-tolerated by clients with Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that often requires a low-fiber diet to reduce irritation to the digestive tract. Vanilla milkshake is high in dairy and sugar content, which may trigger symptoms in some individuals with Crohn's disease. Buttered popcorn and broccoli are high in fiber, which can be difficult for individuals with Crohn's disease to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

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