Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

2. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with a CVA. Which of the following measures planned by the nurse would be most effective in preventing skin breakdown?

• A. Place the client in the wheelchair for four hours each day
• B. Pad the bony prominences
• C. Reposition every two hours
• D. Massage reddened bony prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning every two hours is the most effective measure in preventing skin breakdown for a client with a CVA. This practice helps to relieve pressure on the skin, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Placing the client in a wheelchair for extended periods (Choice A) can increase pressure on specific areas, leading to skin breakdown. Padding bony prominences (Choice B) can provide some protection but may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Massaging reddened bony prominences (Choice D) can potentially worsen the condition by causing further damage to already compromised skin.

4. The nurse is monitoring a client who has just had a thyroidectomy. The client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. Which of these findings should the nurse assess first?

• A. Calcium level
• B. Chvostek's sign
• C. Trousseau's sign
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Chvostek's sign. This is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after a thyroidectomy due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications like tetany and laryngospasm, necessitating immediate attention. Assessing Chvostek's sign helps in early identification and management of hypocalcemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While assessing the calcium level is important for diagnosing hypocalcemia, the immediate concern is to identify clinical signs like Chvostek's sign, which indicate acute hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is also related to hypocalcemia but is not the most critical sign to assess first. Serum potassium level, although important for overall electrolyte balance, is not directly related to the client's current symptoms of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth.

5. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

• A. Flaccid paralysis
• B. Pupils fixed and dilated
• C. Diminished spinal reflexes
• D. Reduced sensory responses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.

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