which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease. This finding suggests active bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate attention. A normal heart rate of 72 beats per minute (choice A) is within the expected range. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (choice B) is also within normal limits. Nausea and vomiting (choice D) are common symptoms associated with peptic ulcer disease but may not necessarily indicate active bleeding like black, tarry stools.

3. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's Disease and is experiencing frequent cramping and diarrhea. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing caloric intake by eating foods high in protein can help Crohn's Disease patients maintain their weight and manage symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fresh fruits and vegetables may exacerbate symptoms due to their high fiber content. Choice C is incorrect as high-fat foods can be difficult to digest and may worsen symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because whole milk can be problematic for individuals with Crohn's Disease due to its high fat content.

5. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.

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