Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

2. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

• A. Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities
• B. Exercise to reduce weight
• C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
• D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing activities help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. This type of exercise includes activities like walking, dancing, and weightlifting, which help improve bone density. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health, not weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture can lead to muscle weakness and a decline in bone health. Choice D is also incorrect because while strengthening muscles is beneficial, the emphasis for osteoporosis management should be on weight-bearing exercises specifically.

3. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

• A. Neurological status
• B. Cardiac status
• C. Respiratory status
• D. Gastrointestinal status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

4. The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Findings include moderate edema and oliguria. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated. What dietary modifications are most appropriate?

• A. Decreased carbohydrates and fat
• B. Decreased sodium and potassium
• C. Increased potassium and protein
• D. Increased sodium and fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased sodium and potassium.' In acute glomerulonephritis, managing edema and oliguria is crucial. Reducing sodium and potassium intake helps achieve this by decreasing fluid retention and workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Decreased carbohydrates and fat,' is not directly related to managing AGN. Choice C, 'Increased potassium and protein,' is incorrect as increasing potassium can be harmful in kidney conditions. Choice D, 'Increased sodium and fluids,' is also incorrect as it can exacerbate edema and hypertension in AGN.

5. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?

• A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
• B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
• C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
• D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.

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