Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

2. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parents of a newborn about feeding skills. Which of the following is not an infant's feeding skill?

• A. Pushes solid objects from mouth
• B. Eats foods that are higher in fat
• C. Begins experimenting with a spoon
• D. Eats pieces of soft, cooked food

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When discussing infant feeding skills, it is important to note that eating foods higher in fat is not considered a specific feeding skill for newborns. The typical progression of feeding skills includes pushing solid objects from the mouth, eating pieces of soft, cooked food, drinking from a cup held by another person, and experimenting with a spoon. Choices A, C, and D correspond to the expected developmental sequence of feeding skills for infants, making them incorrect answers in this context.

3. The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.

4. A client has a chest tube in place following a left lower lobectomy inserted after a stab wound to the chest. When repositioning the client, the nurse notices 200 cc of dark, red fluid flows into the collection chamber of the chest drain. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Clamp the chest tube
• B. Call the surgeon immediately
• C. Prepare for blood transfusion
• D. Continue to monitor the rate of drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue to monitor the rate of drainage. Clamping the chest tube is not recommended as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Calling the surgeon immediately may not be necessary at this point unless the drainage rate significantly increases or other concerning symptoms develop. Preparing for a blood transfusion is premature without further assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. Monitoring the rate of drainage allows the nurse to assess for any potential complications and ensure that the drainage amount is within expected limits.

5. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?

• A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
• B. Go get the code cart
• C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
• D. Validate the client's advanced directive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.

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