Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which of these assessments is a priority?

• A. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema
• B. Assessing for signs of infection at the insertion site
• C. Monitoring the client's respiratory status
• D. Checking the chest tube for kinks or occlusions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for signs of infection at the insertion site is the priority when caring for a client with a chest tube. Infection at the insertion site can lead to serious complications such as empyema or sepsis. Monitoring respiratory status is essential but assessing for infection takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema is important but not the priority unless it compromises respiratory function. Checking the chest tube for kinks or occlusions is crucial for proper drainage but is not the priority when infection is a concern.

3. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

• A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
• B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
• D. Monitoring the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
• D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.

5. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin?

• A. Protamine
• B. Amicar
• C. Imferon
• D. Diltiazem

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Amicar (Choice B) is used to treat excessive bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity and is not the antidote for heparin overdose. Imferon (Choice C) is an iron supplement and is not indicated for heparin overdose. Diltiazem (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina, not for heparin overdose. Therefore, the correct choice is Protamine (Choice A).

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