Nursing Elites

1. An 85-year-old client complains of generalized muscle aches and pains. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Assess the severity and location of the pain
• B. Obtain an order for an analgesic
• C. Reassure the client that this is not unusual for his age
• D. Encourage the client to increase activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the severity and location of the pain. This is crucial because understanding the nature of the pain will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate pain management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering analgesics should come after assessing the pain to ensure the right medication is given. Choice C is incorrect because dismissing the pain as a normal part of aging without proper assessment could overlook underlying issues. Choice D is incorrect as increasing activity without understanding the cause of pain may exacerbate the client's condition.

2. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute anti-parkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

3. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. Which over-the-counter medication should the client be instructed to avoid?

• A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• B. Cough medicines with guaifenesin
• C. Histamine blockers
• D. Laxatives containing magnesium salts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). When a client is on Coumadin therapy, NSAIDs should be avoided because they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not have a significant interaction with Coumadin therapy that would necessitate avoidance.

4. During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?

• A. The client complains of a salty taste in the mouth when the dye is injected
• B. The client's entire body turns a bright red color
• C. The client states 'I have a feeling of getting warm.'
• D. The client gags and complains 'I am getting sick.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The observation of the client's entire body turning a bright red color during an excretory urogram indicates a severe reaction to the dye, which is a significant complication. This reaction is likely due to an allergic response and requires immediate medical attention. The other choices do not signify a severe complication: choice A could be a normal taste sensation related to the procedure, choice C may indicate a mild reaction, and choice D could be a common side effect of nausea without indicating a severe complication requiring immediate intervention.

5. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

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