HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
- A. Have him drink several glasses of water
- B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
- C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
- D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.
2. What is the most important information for the PN to reinforce with the parents when caring for a child diagnosed with acute rheumatic fever?
- A. Complete the full course of prescribed antibiotics.
- B. Ensure the child gets plenty of physical exercise.
- C. Keep the child on a low-sodium diet.
- D. Administer prescribed pain medications as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial in the management of acute rheumatic fever as it helps prevent recurrence and complications. Antibiotics are essential in eradicating the underlying infection that triggers the autoimmune response leading to rheumatic fever. Reinforcing the importance of completing the prescribed antibiotic regimen is vital to ensure the child's recovery and prevent further health issues. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical as completing the antibiotic treatment. While physical exercise, a low-sodium diet, and pain management are important aspects of overall health, they are not the primary focus when managing acute rheumatic fever.
3. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
- B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
- C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
- D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.
5. Warm compresses are ordered for an open wound. Which action is appropriate for the nurse?
- A. Use sterile technique when applying the compresses.
- B. Leave the compresses on the area continuously, pouring warm solution on the area when it cools down.
- C. Alternate warm compresses with cold compresses.
- D. Apply a wet dressing and cover it with a dry dressing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using sterile technique when applying the compresses is crucial to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Ensuring a clean environment during wound care reduces the risk of introducing pathogens that can lead to complications. Proper infection control measures play a significant role in the healing process of open wounds. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the compresses on continuously can lead to skin damage or thermal injury. Choice C is incorrect as alternating warm compresses with cold compresses is not appropriate for an open wound. Choice D is incorrect as applying a wet dressing without following specific orders can be detrimental to wound healing.