Nursing Elites

1. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately.
• B. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods.
• C. Continue to monitor the client’s intake and output.
• D. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best immediate action by the nurse in this situation is to place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring the cardiac status is crucial to detect any potential arrhythmias promptly. Teaching the client to limit high-potassium foods (Choice B) may be important for long-term management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but does not address the immediate risk of dysrhythmias. Asking to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen (Choice D) is unnecessary since the current results indicate a critical situation that requires immediate action.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair. Which intervention(s) should the nurse plan to administer for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis?

• A. Pneumatic compression devices
• B. Incentive spirometry
• C. Assisted ambulation
• D. Calf-pump exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a postoperative client with a femoral head fracture repair is the use of pneumatic compression devices. These devices help prevent stasis in the lower extremities by promoting venous return through intermittent compression. Incentive spirometry is used to prevent respiratory complications by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions, not for DVT prophylaxis. Assisted ambulation and calf-pump exercises are beneficial for promoting circulation and preventing DVT, but pneumatic compression devices are more effective in this specific postoperative scenario.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed a low-protein diet. The nurse should explain to the client that the purpose of this diet is to:

• A. Prevent fluid overload.
• B. Reduce the workload on the kidneys.
• C. Prevent dehydration.
• D. Maintain electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Reduce the workload on the kidneys.' A low-protein diet is prescribed for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea and other nitrogenous wastes, which can accumulate in the body when the kidneys are not functioning properly. This reduction in protein intake helps to lessen the burden on the kidneys, as they may have difficulty in filtering and excreting waste products. Choice A is incorrect because fluid overload is more related to restrictions in fluid intake rather than protein intake. Choice C is incorrect as a low-protein diet does not directly prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because while electrolyte balance is essential in renal failure, the primary purpose of a low-protein diet is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by limiting the production of waste products.

4. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.

• A. Unequal chest expansion
• B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
• C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
• D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.

5. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:

• A. Improvement in the client
• B. The need for antiretroviral therapy
• C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy
• D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.

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