Nursing Elites

1. A client is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy and reports increased pain from 3 to 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client on the operative side.
• B. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
• C. Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure.
• D. Examine the color of the client’s urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abrupt increase in pain following a percutaneous kidney biopsy may indicate internal hemorrhage. Assessing the client's pulse rate and blood pressure is crucial as changes in vital signs can be indicative of hemorrhage. This assessment is essential in determining the client's hemodynamic status and the need for immediate intervention. Repositioning the client, administering pain medication, or checking urine color are not the priority actions in this situation and may delay necessary interventions for potential hemorrhage.

2. The patient will begin taking doxycycline to treat an infection. When should the nurse plan to give this medication?

• A. 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
• B. with an antacid to minimize GI irritation.
• C. with food to improve absorption.
• D. with small sips of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Doxycycline is a lipid-soluble tetracycline that is better absorbed when taken with milk products and food. Taking doxycycline with food helps improve its absorption. It should not be taken on an empty stomach, as this can decrease its effectiveness. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of tetracyclines, so they should not be taken together. While it is important to stay hydrated when taking medications, small sips of water are not specifically recommended for doxycycline administration.

3. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:

• A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
• B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
• C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
• D. Determining how long the client can walk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.

4. After teaching a client with renal cancer who is prescribed temsirolimus (Torisel), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication with food and plenty of water.
• B. I shall keep my appointment at the infusion center each week.
• C. I’ll limit my intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication.
• D. I must not take this medication if I have an infection or am feeling ill.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Temsirolimus, also known as Torisel, is administered as a weekly intravenous infusion. This medication blocks protein needed for cell division, inhibiting cell cycle progression. It is not taken orally, so there is no need to take it with food or water. Keeping the weekly infusion center appointment is crucial for the client to receive the prescribed treatment effectively. Choice A is incorrect as temsirolimus is not taken with food or water. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to limit the intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication. Choice D is incorrect as having an infection or feeling ill does not prohibit the use of temsirolimus.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
• B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
• C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.

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