Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.

2. A nurse contacts the healthcare provider after reviewing a client’s laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription?

• A. Intravenous fluids
• B. Hemodialysis
• C. Fluid restriction
• D. Urine culture and sensitivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal range for BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL, and for creatinine, it is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL in males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL in females. Creatinine is a more specific marker for kidney function compared to BUN. In this case, the client's creatinine level is within the normal range, indicating a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. Dehydration is a common cause of increased BUN, so the appropriate action would be to recommend intravenous fluids to address the dehydration. Fluid restriction is not indicated as the client needs hydration. Hemodialysis is not appropriate for dehydration and is typically reserved for renal failure. The laboratory results do not suggest an infection, making a urine culture and sensitivity unnecessary in this scenario.

3. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could:

• A. Be drying to nasal passages
• B. Decrease the client’s oxygen-based respiratory drive
• C. Increase the risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages
• D. Decrease the client’s carbon dioxide–based respiratory drive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.
• B. Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.
• C. Give the medication and obtain a serum peak drug level 45 minutes after the dose.
• D. Hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.

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