Nursing Elites

1. A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client?

• A. Disorientation and dyspnea
• B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
• C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
• D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias. When a client is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is a common sign of respiratory alkalosis. Dizziness and paresthesias (tingling or numbness in the extremities) are also typical symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Disorientation and dyspnea (Choice A) are not specific signs of respiratory alkalosis. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea (Choice B) may be more indicative of other conditions. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth (Choice D) are not consistent with the expected signs of respiratory alkalosis.

2. During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, 'What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Neither plan allows the selection of healthcare providers or hospitals.
• B. There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan.
• C. An individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network.
• D. An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is option C, as it highlights a key advantage of a preferred provider organization (PPO) insurance plan. By stating that an individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network, the nurse emphasizes the flexibility and freedom of choice that PPO plans offer. This feature allows individuals to seek care from providers who are not part of the PPO network, albeit at a higher cost. Option A is incorrect because both PPO and HMO plans allow the selection of healthcare providers, although with different restrictions. Option B is incorrect as PPO plans typically offer a larger selection of healthcare providers compared to HMO plans. Option D is incorrect as membership in a PPO usually requires affiliation with a group, such as through employment or membership in an organization.

3. A client with elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) triggers the release of this hormone due to which disorder?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Dehydration
• C. Renal failure
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases tubular permeability to water, causing more water absorption into the capillaries. ADH is released in response to a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, such as in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema do not typically lead to the release of ADH. Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition, renal failure affects kidney function, and edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues, none of which directly stimulate the release of ADH.

4. Which food is most important to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet?

• A. Fortified milk and cereals
• B. Citrus fruits and juices
• C. Green leafy vegetables
• D. Red meats and eggs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fortified milk and cereals. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Fortified milk and cereals are rich sources of vitamin D, which is essential for managing osteomalacia. Citrus fruits and juices (choice B) are high in vitamin C, but vitamin D is the primary concern for osteomalacia. Green leafy vegetables (choice C) are good sources of various nutrients but not the main focus for managing osteomalacia. Red meats and eggs (choice D) are good sources of protein and other nutrients but are not as critical as fortified milk and cereals for addressing vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

5. A client who underwent lobectomy 24 hours ago has not had any chest tube drainage for the past hour. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Contacts the physician
• B. Checks for kinks in the drainage system
• C. Checks the client’s blood pressure and heart rate
• D. Connects a new drainage system to the client’s chest tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a chest tube is not draining, the nurse's initial action should be to check for kinks or clots in the chest drainage system. This step helps to ensure the patency of the system and allows for proper drainage. Checking the client's blood pressure and heart rate is important but not the priority when addressing a lack of chest tube drainage. Contacting the physician is warranted if signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift are observed after ruling out kinks or clots. Connecting a new drainage system is done when the fluid chamber is full, following a specific procedure to maintain a closed system and prevent complications.

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