HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client?
- A. Disorientation and dyspnea
- B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
- C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
- D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias. When a client is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is a common sign of respiratory alkalosis. Dizziness and paresthesias (tingling or numbness in the extremities) are also typical symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Disorientation and dyspnea (Choice A) are not specific signs of respiratory alkalosis. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea (Choice B) may be more indicative of other conditions. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth (Choice D) are not consistent with the expected signs of respiratory alkalosis.
2. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer fluids to increase blood pressure.
- B. Check the white blood cell count.
- C. Monitor the client’s temperature.
- D. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.
3. The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
- B. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
- C. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
- D. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, eye discomfort due to protuberant eyeballs (exophthalmos) can be alleviated by using artificial tear drops. These drops help prevent complications associated with dry eyes and promote comfort. Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to the client's eye discomfort from hyperthyroidism. Administering intravenous levothyroxine (Choice B) is not the appropriate intervention for managing eye discomfort in hyperthyroidism. Reviewing serum electrolyte values (Choice C) is important in hyperthyroidism but is not directly addressing the client's current eye discomfort and protuberant eyeballs.
4. A client is scheduled to undergo computerized tomography (CT) with contrast for evaluation of an abdominal mass. The nurse should tell the client that:
- A. The test may be painful
- B. The test takes 2 to 3 hours
- C. Food and fluids are not allowed for 4 hours after the test
- D. Dye is injected and may cause a warm flushing sensation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A contrast-aided CT scan involves the injection of dye to enhance the images obtained. The dye may cause a warm flushing sensation when injected, which is a common side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. CT with contrast is generally not a painful procedure, the duration of the test does not usually take 2 to 3 hours, and restrictions on food and fluids are typically before the test, not afterward.
5. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about dietary restrictions by the nurse. Which of the following food items should the client avoid?
- A. Apples
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Rice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples (choice A), chicken (choice C), and rice (choice D) are not typically restricted in clients with chronic renal failure. Apples and rice are lower in potassium, while chicken is a good source of lean protein, which is usually encouraged in these clients to meet their protein needs without excess potassium intake.
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