Nursing Elites

1. A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client?

• A. Disorientation and dyspnea
• B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
• C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
• D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias. When a client is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is a common sign of respiratory alkalosis. Dizziness and paresthesias (tingling or numbness in the extremities) are also typical symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Disorientation and dyspnea (Choice A) are not specific signs of respiratory alkalosis. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea (Choice B) may be more indicative of other conditions. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth (Choice D) are not consistent with the expected signs of respiratory alkalosis.

2. After a myocardial infarction, why is the hospitalized client taught to move the legs while resting in bed?

• A. Prepare the client for ambulation.
• B. Promote urinary and intestinal elimination.
• C. Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation.
• D. Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Moving the legs helps prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation by promoting venous return in clients on bed rest. This prevents stasis and clot formation in the lower extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary goal of moving the legs is to prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation, rather than preparing for ambulation, promoting elimination, or decreasing pressure ulcer formation. Ambulation preparation involves different exercises, urinary and intestinal elimination are not directly related to leg movements, and pressure ulcer prevention is more related to repositioning and skin care.

3. The client with diabetes mellitus should be cautioned by the nurse taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following?

• A. Hypokalemia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms. When a client with diabetes mellitus taking a sulfonylurea consumes alcohol, it can lead to disulfiram-like symptoms, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. Choice A, hypokalemia, is incorrect because sulfonylureas do not typically lead to low potassium levels. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as sulfonylureas are not associated with high potassium levels. Choice C, hypocalcemia, is also incorrect because sulfonylureas are not known to cause low calcium levels.

4. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will not take this drug with food or milk.
• B. If I suspect pregnancy, I will discontinue the drug.
• C. An orange color in my urine should not alarm me.
• D. I will consume two glasses of cranberry juice daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine commonly discolors urine to a deep reddish orange, which can be mistaken for blood. It is important for the client to understand that this color change is an expected side effect and should not be a cause for alarm. Additionally, the urine can stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or precautions related to food or milk intake while taking phenazopyridine. Stopping the medication if suspecting pregnancy is not necessary as phenazopyridine is safe to use during pregnancy. Drinking cranberry juice is not directly related to the use of phenazopyridine and is not a specific instruction given for managing bacterial cystitis.

5. Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?

• A. Breast self-examinations are not necessary if annual mammograms are obtained.
• B. Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
• C. Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings.
• D. Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information to provide a post-menopausal female client regarding mammograms is that yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings. It is crucial for post-menopausal women to continue regular mammograms as they are at a higher risk for breast cancer. Option A is incorrect as breast self-examinations are still recommended in addition to mammograms. Option B is not the most important information compared to the importance of regular mammograms. Option D is not the most important advice for all post-menopausal females but specifically for those at high risk, indicating a more targeted approach.

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