HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Constipation
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Occult bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.
2. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
- A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
- B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
- D. Monitoring the client's intake and output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
3. A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).
- A. Avoid unpasteurized dairy products.
- B. Keep cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F).
- C. Discard leftovers after 48 hours.
- D. Wash raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.
4. A nurse is providing care to a 63-year-old client with pneumonia. Which intervention promotes the client's comfort?
- A. Increase oral fluid intake
- B. Encourage visits from family and friends
- C. Keep conversations short
- D. Monitor vital signs frequently
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping conversations short is the most appropriate intervention to promote comfort for a client with pneumonia. Pneumonia can be physically exhausting, and limiting the length of conversations helps conserve the client's energy. Encouraging visits from family and friends (Choice B) may be emotionally supportive but might not directly promote comfort in the context of conserving energy during recovery. Increasing oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for hydration but may not directly address the client's comfort. Monitoring vital signs frequently (Choice D) is essential for assessing the client's condition but does not directly promote comfort.
5. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
- A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
- B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
- C. Initiate intravenous therapy
- D. Administer pain medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.
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