Nursing Elites

1. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Constipation
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Occult bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's disease about foods to include in her diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Vanilla milkshake
• B. Buttered popcorn
• C. Broccoli
• D. Grilled chicken breast

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grilled chicken breast is a high-protein, low-fiber food that is well-tolerated by clients with Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that often requires a low-fiber diet to reduce irritation to the digestive tract. Vanilla milkshake is high in dairy and sugar content, which may trigger symptoms in some individuals with Crohn's disease. Buttered popcorn and broccoli are high in fiber, which can be difficult for individuals with Crohn's disease to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

3. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. give the medication in the ventrogluteal site
• C. call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering the medication in 2 separate injections is the correct action. When the total volume of an injection is relatively large for a specific site, dividing it into smaller volumes and administering them separately is a safer practice to prevent discomfort, tissue damage, or absorption issues. Giving the medication in the ventrogluteal site can be appropriate for IM injections but does not address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection. Calling to get a smaller volume ordered may delay treatment and is not necessary when a safe administration method is available. Checking with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication does not directly address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection, and changing the formulation may not be necessary if the correct administration technique can be applied.

4. During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?

• A. The client complains of a salty taste in the mouth when the dye is injected
• B. The client's entire body turns a bright red color
• C. The client states 'I have a feeling of getting warm.'
• D. The client gags and complains 'I am getting sick.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The observation of the client's entire body turning a bright red color during an excretory urogram indicates a severe reaction to the dye, which is a significant complication. This reaction is likely due to an allergic response and requires immediate medical attention. The other choices do not signify a severe complication: choice A could be a normal taste sensation related to the procedure, choice C may indicate a mild reaction, and choice D could be a common side effect of nausea without indicating a severe complication requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. The tube will drain fluid from your chest.
• B. The tube will remove excess air from your chest.
• C. The tube controls the amount of air that enters your chest.
• D. The tube will seal the hole in your lung.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

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