Nursing Elites

1. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Constipation
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Occult bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.

2. What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a postoperative client?

• A. Maintain adequate hydration
• B. Assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
• C. Ambulate the client within 12 hours
• D. Splint the incision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. This intervention helps to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis in postoperative clients. Maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis. Ambulating the client within 12 hours is beneficial for preventing complications after surgery, but it may not be as directly effective in preventing atelectasis as turning, deep breathing, and coughing. Splinting the incision is important for postoperative care, but it does not specifically address the prevention of atelectasis.

3. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Readjust the traction
• C. Administer the ordered PRN medication
• D. Reassess the foot in fifteen minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, a pale foot with the absence of a pulse indicates compromised circulation, which is a critical emergency. The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to address the circulation issue promptly. Reading the question and understanding the urgency is vital. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot in fifteen minutes are not appropriate actions when a child is experiencing compromised circulation.

4. An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Add a thickening agent to the fluids
• B. Check the client's gag reflex
• C. Feed the client only solid foods
• D. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is crucial in this situation as coughing while consuming liquids can indicate a risk of aspiration. Assessing the gag reflex can help determine if the client is safe to swallow without inhaling fluids into the lungs, which could lead to further respiratory complications. Adding a thickening agent may not address the underlying issue of aspiration risk. Feeding the client only solid foods is not appropriate without assessing the swallowing safety first. Increasing the rate of intravenous fluids does not directly address the client's difficulty with liquid intake.

5. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. give the medication in the ventrogluteal site
• C. call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering the medication in 2 separate injections is the correct action. When the total volume of an injection is relatively large for a specific site, dividing it into smaller volumes and administering them separately is a safer practice to prevent discomfort, tissue damage, or absorption issues. Giving the medication in the ventrogluteal site can be appropriate for IM injections but does not address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection. Calling to get a smaller volume ordered may delay treatment and is not necessary when a safe administration method is available. Checking with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication does not directly address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection, and changing the formulation may not be necessary if the correct administration technique can be applied.

Similar Questions