HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Constipation
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Occult bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.
2. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?
- A. 1 medium apple
- B. 3 oz of lean beef
- C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
- D. 1 cup of kale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.
3. A client with heart failure has Lanoxin (digoxin) ordered. What would the nurse expect to find when evaluating for the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug?
- A. diaphoresis with decreased urinary output
- B. increased heart rate with increased respirations
- C. improved respiratory status and increased urinary output
- D. decreased chest pain and decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When evaluating the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in a client with heart failure, the nurse should expect to find improved respiratory status and increased urinary output. Digoxin helps improve cardiac output and reduces fluid accumulation, leading to improved breathing and increased urinary output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diaphoresis with decreased urinary output, increased heart rate with increased respirations, and decreased chest pain with decreased blood pressure are not indicative of the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure management.
4. While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago, the nurse notes today's temperature is 101.1 degrees Fahrenheit (38.5 degrees Celsius). The appropriate nursing intervention is to
- A. Call the health care provider immediately
- B. Administer acetaminophen as ordered as this is normal at this time
- C. Send blood, urine, and sputum for culture
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer acetaminophen as ordered because a slight fever is normal after an MI. This intervention can help manage the fever unless other complications are present. Calling the health care provider immediately is not necessary for a slight fever post-MI. Sending blood, urine, and sputum for culture is not indicated solely based on a slight fever without other symptoms or signs of infection. Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial for various reasons but is not the priority in this situation where managing the fever with acetaminophen is appropriate.
5. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
- A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
- B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
- D. Monitoring the client's intake and output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
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