although non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen motrin are beneficial in managing arthritis pain the nurse should caution clients abo
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of these statements made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping medications when blood sugar levels are normal can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels if the individual does not understand the importance of medication adherence in managing diabetes. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that demonstrate good understanding of managing diabetes, such as monitoring blood glucose levels, following a meal plan, exercising regularly, and adhering to medication even when feeling better.

3. A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a recent illness, such as a cold, can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease. This crisis is often precipitated by infections or other illnesses that cause a systemic inflammatory response, leading to vaso-occlusion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the etiology of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, making them incorrect.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.

5. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.

Similar Questions

During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?
The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?
When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?
A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?
When reassigned to the emergency department, a nurse should understand that gastric lavage is a priority in which situation?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses