HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Constipation
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Occult bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.
2. Which client calling the community health clinic would the nurse ask to come in that day to be seen by the health care provider?
- A. I started my period, and now my urine has turned bright red.
- B. I am a diabetic, and today I have been going to the bathroom every hour.
- C. I was started on medicine yesterday for a urinary infection. Now my lower belly hurts when I go to the bathroom.
- D. I went to the bathroom, and my urine looked very red, and it didn't hurt when I went.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because bright red urine without pain suggests possible hematuria, which is a concerning symptom that requires immediate medical evaluation. Option A mentions bright red urine but also relates it to starting a period, which is less likely to be an urgent issue. Option B describes increased urination, which may indicate hyperglycemia but doesn't require immediate evaluation. Option C presents symptoms more related to a urinary tract infection that may not require urgent attention.
3. A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).
- A. Avoid unpasteurized dairy products.
- B. Keep cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F).
- C. Discard leftovers after 48 hours.
- D. Wash raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.
4. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?
- A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
- B. Supplements via NG tube
- C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
- D. Mechanical soft diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.
5. A client with a head injury is being monitored for increased intracranial pressure. Which of these findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute
- B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Pupils equal and reactive to light
- D. Client reports headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pupils that are equal and reactive to light are a crucial neurological assessment finding. Changes in pupil size and reactivity can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and are not indicative of increased intracranial pressure. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and a client reporting a headache are common findings and may not necessitate immediate intervention in this context.
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