Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• B. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
• D. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.

2. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

3. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?

• A. Change in libido, breast enlargement
• B. Sore throat, fever
• C. Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea
• D. Dsypnea, nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.

4. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

• A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
• B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
• C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
• D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

5. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

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