HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute
- B. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
2. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?
- A. Bruising at the operative site
- B. Elevated heart rate
- C. Decreased platelet count
- D. No bowel movement for 3 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.
3. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
- A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
- B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
- C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
- D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
4. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?
- A. FHT 168 beats/min
- B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
- C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
- D. BP 138/88
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about dietary choices for celiac disease. Which of the following menu choices selected by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Hamburger on a wheat bun
- B. Baked chicken and potato chips
- C. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast
- D. Beef and barley soup with crackers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because baked chicken and potato chips are gluten-free options suitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice A, a hamburger on a wheat bun, contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Choice C, a bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast, also contains gluten. Choice D, beef and barley soup with crackers, includes gluten from the barley and crackers, making it unsuitable for someone with celiac disease.
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