HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute
- B. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
2. The nurse receives an order to give a client iron by deep injection. The nurse knows that the reason for this route is to
- A. enhance absorption of the medication
- B. ensure that the entire dose of medication is given
- C. provide more even distribution of the drug
- D. prevent the drug from tissue irritation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Deep injection helps to prevent tissue irritation caused by iron, which can be damaging to tissues. Option A is incorrect because deep injection does not primarily aim to enhance absorption, but rather to prevent tissue irritation. Option B is incorrect as the route of administration does not determine whether the entire dose is given. Option C is incorrect because the even distribution of the drug is not the main purpose of deep injection in this context.
3. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
- B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
- C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
- D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.
4. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
- A. Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities
- B. Exercise to reduce weight
- C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
- D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis regarding exercise is to engage in weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis-related fractures. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture would limit physical activity, which is essential for overall health. Choice D is incorrect as while strengthening muscles is beneficial, weight-bearing activities directly impact bone health in osteoporosis.
5. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
- A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
- B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
- C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
- D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
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