HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
2. A nurse is caring for a client following the surgical placement of a colostomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the dietary teaching?
- A. Eating yogurt can help decrease gas odor that I have.
- B. I should eliminate pasta from my diet so that I don't have as many loose stools.
- C. My largest meal of the day should be in the evening.
- D. Carbonated beverages can help control odor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Yogurt contains probiotics which can help reduce gas and odor in colostomy patients. Choice B is incorrect because pasta is a low-fiber food that can help thicken stools, which may be beneficial for colostomy patients. Choice C is incorrect because it is generally recommended for colostomy patients to have their largest meal earlier in the day to allow for better digestion. Choice D is incorrect because carbonated beverages can actually increase gas production and worsen odor in colostomy patients.
3. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
- A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
- B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
- C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
- D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
4. The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?
- A. Assess nail beds for color and refill
- B. Assess for postoperative arrhythmias
- C. Auscultate for pulmonary congestion
- D. Monitor equality of peripheral pulses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.
5. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. The tube will drain fluid from your chest.
- B. The tube will remove excess air from your chest.
- C. The tube controls the amount of air that enters your chest.
- D. The tube will seal the hole in your lung.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.
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