Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?

• A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
• B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
• C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
• D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.

2. A client has a chest tube in place following a left lower lobectomy inserted after a stab wound to the chest. When repositioning the client, the nurse notices 200 cc of dark, red fluid flows into the collection chamber of the chest drain. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Clamp the chest tube
• B. Call the surgeon immediately
• C. Prepare for blood transfusion
• D. Continue to monitor the rate of drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue to monitor the rate of drainage. Clamping the chest tube is not recommended as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Calling the surgeon immediately may not be necessary at this point unless the drainage rate significantly increases or other concerning symptoms develop. Preparing for a blood transfusion is premature without further assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. Monitoring the rate of drainage allows the nurse to assess for any potential complications and ensure that the drainage amount is within expected limits.

3. A client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Use sugar-free gum if you experience a metallic taste in your mouth.
• B. Drink fluids at mealtime to prevent early satiety.
• C. Foods that are higher in fat can help nausea.
• D. Raw fruits and vegetables will be easier for your body to digest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using sugar-free gum can help alleviate the metallic taste often experienced during chemotherapy treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking fluids at mealtime may worsen early satiety, foods higher in fat can exacerbate nausea, and raw fruits and vegetables may be harder for the body to digest and may pose a risk of infection for individuals with compromised immune systems.

4. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

• A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
• B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
• D. Monitoring the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

5. A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.

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