HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a group of older adults about sources of complete and incomplete protein. Which of the following foods should the nurse include as a complete protein?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Fresh vegetables
- C. Nuts
- D. Dried beans
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Yogurt contains all essential amino acids, making it a complete protein. Choice B, fresh vegetables, are incomplete proteins. Choice C, nuts, are also incomplete proteins. Choice D, dried beans, are incomplete proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is yogurt because it is a source of complete protein.
2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about reliable sources of Vitamin B12 with a client who is pregnant. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend in the teaching?
- A. Figs
- B. Broccoli
- C. Stewed tomatoes
- D. Skim milk
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Skim milk is a reliable source of Vitamin B12, which is essential for the health of both the mother and the developing fetus. While figs, broccoli, and stewed tomatoes are nutritious foods, they are not significant sources of Vitamin B12. Figs are a good source of fiber and other vitamins, broccoli is rich in Vitamin C and K, and stewed tomatoes are high in Vitamin C and antioxidants, but they do not contain Vitamin B12 as much as skim milk does.
3. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
- A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
- B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
- C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
- D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.
4. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
5. When caring for a client with a post right thoracotomy who has undergone an upper lobectomy, the nurse focuses on pain management to promote
- A. Relaxation and sleep
- B. Deep breathing and coughing
- C. Incisional healing
- D. Range of motion exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Effective pain management encourages deep breathing and coughing, which are crucial for preventing complications after thoracic surgery. These actions help prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis, promote lung expansion, and improve oxygenation. While relaxation and sleep are important for recovery, the priority after a thoracotomy and lobectomy is to prevent respiratory issues. Incisional healing is important but not the primary focus immediately post-surgery. Range of motion exercises are not directly related to promoting recovery after thoracic surgery.
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