Nursing Elites

1. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?

• A. Gout
• B. Hemolytic anemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Renal calculi

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.

2. A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Call for the physician.
• B. Start an IV infusion.
• C. Obtain a portable chest radiograph.
• D. Draw blood for laboratory studies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.

3. A nurse teaches clients about the difference between urge incontinence and stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Urge incontinence involves a post-void residual volume less than 50 mL.
• B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles.
• C. Stress incontinence usually occurs in people with dementia.
• D. Urge incontinence can be managed by increasing fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the education about urge incontinence and stress incontinence is choice B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral sphincter, leading to the inability to tighten the urethra sufficiently to overcome increased detrusor pressure. This condition is common after childbirth when pelvic muscles are stretched and weakened. Urge incontinence, on the other hand, is characterized by the inability to suppress the contraction signal from the detrusor muscle. It is often associated with abnormal detrusor contractions, which can be due to neurological abnormalities rather than post-void residual volume. Choice A is incorrect because urge incontinence is not defined by post-void residual volume. Choice C is incorrect as stress incontinence is not usually linked to dementia. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not a management strategy for urge incontinence.

4. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about the importance of fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. I can drink as much fluid as I want, as long as I take my medication.
• B. I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit other fluids.
• D. I will need to drink only when I am thirsty.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' In chronic renal failure, fluid restrictions are crucial to prevent fluid overload and further damage to the kidneys. Option A is incorrect as unrestricted fluid intake can worsen the condition. Option C is also incorrect as total fluid intake needs to be restricted, not just other fluids. Option D is not ideal because thirst may not accurately reflect the body's fluid needs in chronic renal failure.

5. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?

• A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
• B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
• C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
• D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.

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