Nursing Elites

1. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?

• A. Gout
• B. Hemolytic anemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Renal calculi

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.

2. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?

• A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
• B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
• C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
• D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of normal saline and notices that the infusion is not flowing. The insertion site is not inflamed or swollen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the tubing for kinks or obstructions.
• B. Increase the flow rate to improve the infusion.
• C. Reinsert the IV catheter in another vein.
• D. Call the physician for further instructions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when an IV infusion is not flowing despite a normal insertion site is to check the tubing for kinks or obstructions. This step is crucial to ensure that there are no preventable issues impeding the flow of the IV solution. Increasing the flow rate without addressing potential obstructions could lead to complications such as infiltration. Reinserting the IV catheter in another vein should only be considered after ruling out tubing issues. Calling the physician for further instructions is not necessary at this stage as troubleshooting the tubing should be the initial intervention.

4. A client with diabetes begins to cry and says, 'I just cannot stand the thought of having to give myself a shot every day.' Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. If you do not give yourself your insulin shots, you will die.
• B. We can teach your daughter to give the shots so you will not have to do it.
• C. I can arrange to have a home care nurse give you the shots every day.
• D. What is it about giving yourself the insulin shots that bothers you?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is option D because it is an open-ended question that allows the client to express their feelings and concerns. This approach facilitates a therapeutic communication process by encouraging the client to verbalize their thoughts, emotions, and fears related to giving themselves insulin shots. Option A is incorrect as it uses a fear-inducing statement that may not be helpful in addressing the client's emotional needs. Option B assumes involvement of a family member without exploring the client's feelings further. Option C offers a solution without addressing the client's underlying concerns and emotions, potentially overlooking essential aspects of client-centered care.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
• B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
• C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
• D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.

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