the nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration mec of antibiotics which statement by the nursing student indicates
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration (MEC) of antibiotics. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of this concept?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The MEC is the minimum amount of drug needed to halt the growth of a microorganism. A level greater than the MEC helps eradicate infections. Drugs at or above the MEC are usually bactericidal, not bacteriostatic. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Broadening the spectrum of a drug refers to its range of activity against different microorganisms, which is not directly related to MEC. Thus, choice B is incorrect. Increasing the therapeutic index involves maximizing the effectiveness of a drug while minimizing its toxicity, which is not specifically related to MEC. Therefore, choice D is also incorrect.

2. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.

3. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.

4. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.

5. When monitoring a client who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should have resuscitation equipment available because reperfusion of the cardiac tissue can result in which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac arrhythmias. Reperfusion of cardiac tissue following t-PA administration can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating resuscitation equipment. Hypertension (choice B) is a common side effect of t-PA but is not directly related to reperfusion. Seizures (choice C) and hypothermia (choice D) are not typically associated with reperfusion from t-PA administration.

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