a nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1040 which action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.

2. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

3. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.

4. Which food is most important to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fortified milk and cereals. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Fortified milk and cereals are rich sources of vitamin D, which is essential for managing osteomalacia. Citrus fruits and juices (choice B) are high in vitamin C, but vitamin D is the primary concern for osteomalacia. Green leafy vegetables (choice C) are good sources of various nutrients but not the main focus for managing osteomalacia. Red meats and eggs (choice D) are good sources of protein and other nutrients but are not as critical as fortified milk and cereals for addressing vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

5. In a patient with anemia, which of the following is the primary symptom to assess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. In a patient with anemia, the primary symptom to assess is shortness of breath. Anemia leads to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in tissues not receiving adequate oxygen. This can manifest as shortness of breath, especially during physical exertion. Fever (Choice A), chest pain (Choice B), and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not typically primary symptoms of anemia. Fever may suggest an infection, chest pain can be indicative of cardiac issues, and muscle cramps may be related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders.

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