HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. After checking the client’s gag reflex following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), which action should the nurse take?
- A. Taking the client’s vital signs
- B. Giving the client a drink of water
- C. Monitoring the client for a sore throat
- D. Being alert to complaints of heartburn
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), the nurse's priority is to assess the client's airway by checking the gag reflex. Once this assessment is done, the next step is to take the client's vital signs to monitor for any signs of complications such as bleeding or changes in respiratory status. Giving the client water immediately after the procedure may not be appropriate, as the client may still have a compromised gag reflex and is at risk for aspiration. Monitoring for a sore throat is important but not the immediate priority post-procedure. Being alert to complaints of heartburn is relevant for assessing the client's symptoms but is not the priority immediately after checking the gag reflex.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the patient’s admission electrolytes and notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action by the nurse is correct?
- A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the patient’s electrocardiogram closely.
- B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the provider of the patient’s lab values.
- C. Request an order for an intravenous bolus of potassium.
- D. Request an order for oral potassium supplements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient has a low serum potassium level, which can predispose the patient to digoxin toxicity. It is essential for the nurse to hold the digoxin dose and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal lab values. Option A is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the low potassium level can potentiate toxicity. Option C is inappropriate as potassium should not be given as an IV bolus, especially in the case of hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect because oral potassium supplements may not be sufficient for rapidly correcting severe hypokalemia in an acute care setting.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing the client's use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with diabetes?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Steroids
- C. Sulfonylureas
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Steroids. Steroids can induce hyperglycemia, complicating diabetes management by raising blood sugar levels. Aspirin is not typically associated with causing complications in diabetic clients. Sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic medications that can lower blood sugar levels and are commonly used in diabetes management, making them beneficial rather than harmful. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are medications often prescribed to manage hypertension in diabetic clients and do not typically interfere with diabetes treatment plans.
4. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
- B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
- C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
- D. Stage I indicates metastasis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.
5. The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units?
- A. 10 units.
- B. 22 units.
- C. 32 units.
- D. 24 units.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct dose would be 32 units, which is the sum of 10 units of regular insulin and 22 units of NPH. It is essential to combine the doses of both types of insulin to ensure the client administers the correct total dose. Choices A and B represent the individual doses of regular and NPH insulin, respectively, not the combined total. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the sum of both insulin doses.
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