Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, which can exacerbate heart failure. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not as immediately concerning as hyperkalemia. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL is also within the normal range and not directly related to the client's left-sided heart failure.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis because it may indicate an underlying infection that requires immediate attention. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of systemic infection, which can quickly worsen in individuals with compromised renal function. Monitoring for infection is crucial in ESRD patients to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as immediately concerning in this context. While variations in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate should be monitored, they are not as indicative of a potentially severe issue as an unexplained fever in this scenario.

3. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Ineffective coping related to denial.
• B. Risk for impaired cardiac function.
• C. Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge.
• D. Anxiety related to hospitalization.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective coping related to denial. The client's desire to leave the hospital shortly after a myocardial infarction despite the severity of the condition indicates denial and ineffective coping. This behavior could lead to complications as the client may not adequately address his health needs. Choice B, Risk for impaired cardiac function, is not the most appropriate nursing problem in this scenario as the client's behavior is more indicative of psychological coping issues rather than a direct physiological risk at this moment. Choice C, Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge, does not align with the client's behavior of wanting to leave the hospital. Choice D, Anxiety related to hospitalization, may not be the best option as the client's behavior is more suggestive of denial rather than anxiety about being hospitalized.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. This increases the risk of hyperkalemia, making it crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy primarily affects red blood cell production, not hemoglobin, white blood cell count, or serum calcium levels.

5. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
• B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
• C. Insert a nasogastric tube
• D. Prepare the client for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

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