HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, which can exacerbate heart failure. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not as immediately concerning as hyperkalemia. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL is also within the normal range and not directly related to the client's left-sided heart failure.
2. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
- A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
- C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
- D. Initiate fall precautions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer thiamine as prescribed. Administering thiamine is crucial in clients with a history of alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) and initiating fall precautions (choice D) are important interventions, but administering thiamine takes precedence due to the risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level
- D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed is the priority intervention in a client with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and unresponsiveness. Severe hyperglycemia can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and administering IV fluids can help manage hyperglycemia and prevent further complications. Administering dextrose IV push (Choice A) can exacerbate hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when the client is unresponsive. Immediate dialysis (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.
4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- D. Positive urine ketones
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with DKA, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis, which is reflected by a low serum bicarbonate level. Correcting the low serum bicarbonate is crucial to normalize the metabolic acidosis and improve the client's condition. While elevated serum glucose (choice A) and urine ketones (choice D) are characteristic of DKA, addressing the metabolic acidosis takes precedence. Serum potassium (choice B) levels may also need monitoring and management, but correcting the acidosis is the priority to prevent complications like cardiovascular collapse.
5. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
- B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
- C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
- D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.
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