Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, which can exacerbate heart failure. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not as immediately concerning as hyperkalemia. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL is also within the normal range and not directly related to the client's left-sided heart failure.

2. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. ‘I will reduce my salt intake to help manage my blood pressure.’
• B. ‘I will start exercising regularly to help control my blood pressure.’
• C. ‘I will avoid drinking alcohol to help manage my blood pressure.’
• D. ‘I will limit my caffeine intake to help control my blood pressure.’

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

3. One day after abdominal surgery, an obese client complains of pain and heaviness in the right calf. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for unilateral swelling
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the leg and apply a warm compress
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to observe for unilateral swelling. Unilateral swelling could indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication that requires immediate assessment. Administering pain medication or applying warm compress may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after assessing and identifying the issue of unilateral swelling.

4. While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, 'I just hate having staples removed.' After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Attempt to distract the client with general conversation
• B. Administer a pain medication
• C. Continue with the procedure while reassuring the client
• D. Stop the procedure and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should attempt to distract the client with general conversation. Distracting the client can help reduce anxiety and make the procedure less stressful. Administering pain medication (choice B) is not appropriate as the client's discomfort is related to anxiety, not physical pain. Continuing with the procedure while reassuring the client (choice C) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Stopping the procedure and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this point since the client's anxiety can be managed by attempting to distract him.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

Similar Questions