HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Presence of a new murmur
- D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An apical pulse of 58 beats per minute is concerning when administering digoxin because digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to bradycardia or heart block. Immediate intervention is required to prevent potential complications. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may indicate valvular issues but does not directly relate to the administration of digoxin. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute is also within normal limits and is not a priority concern when administering digoxin.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl
- C. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Positive urine ketones
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. A low serum potassium level in a client with DKA is concerning due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Kussmaul respirations (choice A) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis in DKA. A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dl (choice B) is elevated but expected in DKA. Positive urine ketones (choice D) are a classic finding in DKA and not as concerning as low serum potassium.
3. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?
- A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
- B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
- C. Restlessness and anxiety
- D. Diaphoresis and dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Hoarse voice
- B. Slight difficulty swallowing
- C. Positive Chvostek's sign
- D. Pain at the incision site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a common complication following thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid gland injury. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent severe hypocalcemia symptoms like tetany, seizures, and laryngospasm. Hoarse voice and slight difficulty swallowing are expected post-thyroidectomy and do not require immediate intervention. Pain at the incision site is common postoperatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures.
5. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?
- A. Sitting up and leaning forward
- B. Lying flat with legs elevated
- C. Lying on the side with the head slightly raised
- D. Sitting up and tilting the head back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) should be placed in a sitting position, leaning forward, to prevent blood from flowing down the throat. This position helps to control the bleeding and prevents the child from swallowing blood, which can cause nausea or vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because elevating the legs is not recommended for nosebleeds. Choice C is incorrect because lying on the side with the head slightly raised is not the optimal position for managing a nosebleed. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the head back can lead to blood flowing down the throat and potentially cause aspiration.
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