HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?
- A. Low bioavailability
- B. Rapid onset of action
- C. Short half-life
- D. Narrow therapeutic index
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, narrow therapeutic index. Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are defined as those drugs where small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the risk of drug toxicity. Low bioavailability (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream unchanged after administration. Rapid onset of action (Choice B) and short half-life (Choice C) are characteristics related to drug effectiveness and metabolism but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of drug toxicity.
2. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?
- A. Describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk
- B. Encourage her to use stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
- C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
- D. Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: There are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers, so it is important to inform her of this option.
3. In caring for a client receiving the aminoglycoside antibiotic gentamicin, what diagnostic test should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum osmolarity
- D. Liver enzymes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial in assessing renal function and detecting any potential kidney problems early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because urinalysis primarily assesses urine composition, serum osmolarity measures the concentration of solutes in the blood, and liver enzymes are not directly impacted by aminoglycoside antibiotics like gentamicin.
4. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.
5. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.
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