Nursing Elites

1. A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Muscle cramping
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle cramping. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to increased ADH release. Demeclocycline is used to block the action of ADH. Muscle cramping can indicate electrolyte imbalances related to hyponatremia, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Insomnia, increased appetite, and anxiety are not typically associated with the side effects or complications of demeclocycline or SIADH.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with a history of COPD, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it suggests the client is struggling to breathe adequately. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but may be expected in COPD patients; it requires monitoring and intervention but is not as immediately concerning as the use of accessory muscles. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is within a normal range and, although slightly elevated, may be a typical response to pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) can be a common finding in pneumonia and are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the use of accessory muscles.

4. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered an hour ago?

• A. Maintain cold packs to the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infant.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the immediate postpartum period to detect postpartum hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication. Monitoring these parameters allows for early identification of excessive bleeding, enabling prompt intervention. While maintaining cold packs to the perineum, assessing pain levels, and observing for appropriate interaction with the infant are important aspects of postpartum care, assessing fundal tone and lochia flow takes precedence due to its direct relevance to identifying and managing a potential emergency situation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
• D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.

Similar Questions