Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Presence of a new murmur

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid overload, a common issue in heart failure patients. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and potential complications. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg are within normal ranges for many individuals and do not typically require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may be important to monitor but is not the priority when crackles in the lungs suggest fluid overload.

2. The nurse is administering an IV medication to a client with a history of anaphylaxis. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Stay with the client throughout the infusion.
• B. Keep emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside.
• C. Obtain the client's allergy history.
• D. Ask the client about past allergic reactions to medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside is crucial in case the client experiences anaphylaxis during the infusion. While staying with the client throughout the infusion (Choice A) is important, having immediate access to emergency equipment takes priority in this situation. Obtaining the client's allergy history (Choice C) and asking about past allergic reactions to medications (Choice D) are relevant but do not address the immediate need for emergency intervention in case of anaphylaxis.

3. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Appearance of wound
• B. Pain level
• C. Presence of fever
• D. Mobility status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.

4. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
• B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
• C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
• D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.

5. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?

• A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
• B. Bradycardia and constipation
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
• D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.

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