HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client reports living at home alone and never falling. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Suggest moving to an assisted living facility
- B. Continue to obtain client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
- C. Reduce the frequency of fall risk assessments for this client
- D. Confirm that the client is safe living alone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. Even though the client reports never falling, it is essential to assess all fall risk factors comprehensively. Fall risk surveys provide valuable information on mobility, vision, medications, and other factors that can impact safety. Option A is incorrect because suggesting moving to an assisted living facility is premature without completing the fall risk assessment. Option C is incorrect as reducing the frequency of fall risk assessments could overlook potential risk factors. Option D is incorrect as the client's statement alone is not enough to confirm their safety living alone; a thorough assessment is necessary.
2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?
- A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
- B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
- C. The client will perform foot care daily
- D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.
3. A 48-year-old client with chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital. The nurse would anticipate that the client may be deficient in which vitamins?
- A. Vitamin B and vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D and vitamin E
- C. Vitamin K and vitamin A
- D. Vitamin A and vitamin E
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic alcoholism commonly leads to deficiencies in B vitamins, particularly thiamine, and vitamin C. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological issues like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, while vitamin C deficiency can lead to scurvy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and E deficiencies are not typically associated with chronic alcoholism.
4. A client with a tracheostomy develops copious, thick secretions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Increase the client's fluid intake.
- B. Perform tracheal suctioning.
- C. Administer a mucolytic agent.
- D. Increase the humidity of the oxygen source.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the humidity of the oxygen source. This action helps thin thick secretions, making them easier to clear from the tracheostomy tube. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial in some cases but addressing humidity is more specific to managing thick secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Tracheal suctioning (Choice B) should be done after attempting to thin the secretions with increased humidity. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice C) is a possible intervention but typically comes after addressing humidity and before resorting to suctioning to avoid unnecessary invasiveness.
5. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
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