the nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900 which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

2. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

3. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively following an appendectomy. The nurse should intervene for which abnormal finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% indicate hypoxia and require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60, and a respiratory rate of 16 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation is a critical parameter reflecting the client's oxygenation status.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with heart failure. Which medication should the nurse question?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause fluid retention, which may worsen heart failure symptoms. It should be used with caution or avoided in clients with heart failure. Furosemide (choice A) is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Digoxin (choice B) is a medication that helps the heart beat stronger and slower, often used in heart failure. Carvedilol (choice D) is a beta-blocker that is beneficial in heart failure management. Therefore, Ibuprofen is the medication that the nurse should question in this scenario.

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