Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

• A. Short half-life
• B. High therapeutic index
• C. Highly protein-bound
• D. Low bioavailability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

2. The client with a below-the-knee amputation is being taught about proper care of the residual limb. The most important point to emphasize would be

• A. Wrap the stump with an elastic bandage to prevent swelling
• B. Keep the skin on the stump clean and dry
• C. Use alcohol to cleanse the stump daily
• D. Apply moisturizing lotion to the stump daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the skin on the stump clean and dry. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting healing of the residual limb. Wrapping the stump with an elastic bandage can constrict blood flow and cause issues. Using alcohol to cleanse the stump daily can be too harsh and drying for the skin, leading to irritation. Applying moisturizing lotion daily is not as essential as keeping the skin clean and dry to prevent complications.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and reports nausea. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Assess the client's digoxin level immediately.
• C. Assess the client’s apical pulse and hold the next dose if it's below 60 bpm.
• D. Instruct the client to reduce their fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client on digoxin reports nausea, it can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's digoxin level immediately. This assessment will help determine if the nausea is related to digoxin toxicity, requiring a dosage adjustment. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Assessing the client's apical pulse (Choice C) is important in general digoxin monitoring but not the first action when nausea is reported. Instructing the client to reduce fluid intake (Choice D) is not the initial response to nausea in a client taking digoxin.

4. What symptoms suggest the dosage of levothyroxine sodium is too high in a 26-year-old client with simple goiter?

• A. Bradycardia and constipation.
• B. Palpitations and shortness of breath.
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite.
• D. Muscle cramps and dry skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpitations and shortness of breath. These symptoms suggest excessive thyroid hormone levels, indicating that the levothyroxine dose is too high. Bradycardia and constipation (choice A) are more indicative of hypothyroidism, which occurs when thyroid hormone levels are low. Lethargy and lack of appetite (choice C) are also common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Muscle cramps and dry skin (choice D) can be associated with various conditions but are not specific to a high dosage of levothyroxine.

5. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

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