Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

• A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
• B. No bowel movement since surgery.
• C. No appetite for breakfast.
• D. A positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

2. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?

• A. The client has been taking multiple medications
• B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
• C. The client's vital signs are stable
• D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.

3. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention
• B. Consume high-protein foods to strengthen the heart
• C. Increase potassium intake to manage blood pressure
• D. Increase fluid intake to promote hydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention. Limiting sodium intake is crucial for managing congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps reduce fluid retention. Excess fluid retention can worsen CHF by increasing the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, it is not directly related to managing CHF. Choice C is incorrect because potassium, although important, is not the primary focus in managing CHF. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid retention in CHF patients.

4. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

• A. Short half-life
• B. High therapeutic index
• C. Highly protein-bound
• D. Low bioavailability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

5. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

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