a client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge which assessment finding requires immediate provider notific
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

2. The healthcare provider is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88 indicates hypoxia, which is a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for the client's well-being. Choices A and B are normal findings after endotracheal intubation. Hearing bilateral breath sounds and seeing mist in the T-piece indicate proper functioning of the endotracheal tube. While choice D may indicate an issue with speaking due to the endotracheal tube, it is not as critical as the hypoxia indicated by the low pulse oximetry reading.

3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client receiving TPN is experiencing nausea and vomiting is to check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy. This is crucial to ensure that the correct solution is being administered and to address any potential errors. Checking the blood glucose level or administering an antiemetic may be necessary interventions but addressing the TPN bag's accuracy should be the priority to prevent any complications related to incorrect TPN solution.

4. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.

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