a client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge which assessment finding requires immediate provider notific
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

2. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse that he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be advised to avoid foods rich in milk and cream. Although they provide temporary relief, dairy products, especially milk, stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Encouraging the client to drink milk (Choice A) would be counterproductive and could worsen the condition. Instructing the client to take antacids (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause of the issue. Advising the client to monitor their symptoms (Choice D) is vague and does not provide specific guidance on managing the duodenal ulcer. Therefore, the best action is to review with the client the need to avoid foods rich in milk and cream to ensure proper ulcer management.

3. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.

4. A client asks the nurse for information about reducing risk factors for BPH. Which information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase physical activity. Physical activity can help reduce the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by improving overall circulation and reducing inflammation. While decreasing alcohol consumption and avoiding caffeine and spicy foods may help with symptom management, increasing physical activity is more strongly linked to the prevention of BPH.

5. When monitoring tissue perfusion following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating the closest proximal pulse is essential when monitoring tissue perfusion post-amputation. This pulse provides crucial information about the circulation and perfusion to the limb. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is more related to wound healing assessment rather than tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or infection but is not the most direct assessment of tissue perfusion. Assessing skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is important for skin integrity but does not directly reflect tissue perfusion.

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