a client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge which assessment finding requires immediate provider notific
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

2. A client with peripheral artery disease reports pain while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with peripheral artery disease often experience claudication (leg pain during walking) due to decreased blood flow. Encouraging rest breaks during walking helps to manage pain and improve circulation. Rest breaks allow the muscles to recover from ischemia caused by inadequate blood supply. Increasing physical activity without breaks may worsen the symptoms. Applying warm compresses can potentially lead to burns or skin damage in individuals with compromised circulation. Massaging the affected leg is contraindicated in peripheral artery disease as it can further compromise blood flow.

3. The nurse is caring for a seated client experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which actions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should loosen restrictive clothing to prevent injury and ease the client to the floor to ensure safety. Placing any object, such as a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth is contraindicated as it may cause harm. Restraint should not be used as it can lead to injury. Beginning CPR is not indicated during a seizure unless the client experiences cardiac arrest, which is a rare complication of seizures.

4. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

5. A client recently started on warfarin therapy. What laboratory value is most important to monitor for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor for clients on warfarin therapy. PT helps determine how long it takes blood to clot and ensures the warfarin dose is within the therapeutic range to prevent either excessive bleeding or clotting. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but PT is more specific to warfarin therapy. Creatinine level and BUN are indicators of kidney function and are not directly related to warfarin therapy.

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