a client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge which assessment finding requires immediate provider notific
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

2. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

3. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

5. A client presents with three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. What interpretation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Two positive responses on the CAGE questionnaire strongly suggest alcohol dependence. Choice A is incorrect as the CAGE questionnaire specifically targets alcohol abuse. Choice C is incorrect because one positive response is not enough to indicate alcohol addiction. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol dependence can be suggested with two positive responses, not all four.

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