Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

• A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
• B. No bowel movement since surgery.
• C. No appetite for breakfast.
• D. A positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

2. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?

• A. Losartan
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Metoprolol
• D. Furosemide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.

3. A client's chest tube insertion site has crepitus (crackling sensation) upon palpation. What is the nurse's next step?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing to the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
• C. Assess the client for allergies to cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to measure the area of crepitus. Crepitus indicates subcutaneous emphysema, which is a serious condition requiring monitoring. Applying a pressure dressing (Choice A) could worsen the condition by trapping air under the skin. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice B) is not indicated for crepitus. Assessing for allergies to cleaning agents (Choice C) is not the priority when dealing with crepitus and subcutaneous emphysema.

4. A client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer. Which of the following should take priority in planning care?

• A. Esophagitis
• B. Leukopenia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Skin irritation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leukopenia. Leukopenia, or a low white blood cell count, is a critical concern in clients undergoing radiation therapy due to the increased risk of infection. While esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, leukopenia poses a higher risk as it compromises the body's ability to fight infections effectively.

5. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
• B. Monitor for ketonuria.
• C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
• D. Monitor for hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

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