HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.
2. A client with Addison's disease becomes confused and weak. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately.
- B. Check the client’s electrolyte levels.
- C. Administer a dose of normal saline.
- D. Measure the client’s blood pressure in both arms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately. In Addison's disease, confusion and weakness can be signs of an adrenal crisis. Administering hydrocortisone promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Checking electrolyte levels (Choice B) is important but not the first action in managing an acute adrenal crisis. Administering normal saline (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Measuring blood pressure in both arms (Choice D) is not the initial action needed to address the client's confusion and weakness in Addison's disease.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?
- A. 100 ml/hour
- B. 75 ml/hour
- C. 60 ml/hour
- D. 125 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.
4. Following a cardiac catheterization and placement of a stent in the right coronary artery, the nurse administers prasugrel, a platelet inhibitor, to the client. To monitor for adverse effects from the medication, which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's care plan?
- A. Check platelet count
- B. Observe the color of urine
- C. Review liver function tests
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prasugrel is a platelet inhibitor, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding, particularly at the catheterization site and in other areas, is the most important assessment following administration of the drug. Checking platelet count and observing urine color are relevant but not as immediate. Reviewing liver function tests is not directly related to the adverse effects of prasugrel.
5. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?
- A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water
- B. Instruct the parent about tetanus boosters
- C. Apply a sterile dressing and refer for a tetanus booster
- D. Elevate the foot and wrap in a compression bandage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.
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